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babunello [35]
3 years ago
15

Assume the $12,000 Treasury bill, 3% for 13 weeks. Calculate the effective rate of interest

Mathematics
1 answer:
Andreas93 [3]3 years ago
6 0
Equation is f(x)=12,000(1.03)^13
the answer would be $17,622
if you were to plug into a scientific calculator
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Help me with the problem plz 6p6
satela [25.4K]

i need more information to answer the question

5 0
3 years ago
A wheel has 10 equally sized slices numbered from 1 to 10.
Ksenya-84 [330]

The random probability of event X, wheel stopping on a white slice is 0.9 while the probability of not X, wheel stopping on Grey slice is 0.1

  • Total numbers on wheel = total possible outcomes = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}

  • Grey colored portion = {3}

  • White colored portion = {1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}

  • X = Event that wheel stops on a white slice

  • P(X) = number of white slices ÷ total number of slices

  • P(X) = 9 / 10 = 0.9

  • P(not X) = 1 - P(X)

  • P(not X) = 1 - 0.9 = 0.1

Therefore, the probability that wheel stops on a white slice is 0.9 while, the probability that wheel does not stop on a white slice is 0.1

Learn more :brainly.com/question/18153040

4 0
3 years ago
Help pleasee , thank you so much in advance
Tanzania [10]
Pretty sure the answer would be 32. It’s basic subtraction I think.
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The monthy net gains sales for a new sporting goods store were: $7195, $1484, $3224, $8807, $7185, $1730, $2573, $7071, $5360, S
brilliants [131]

Answer:

$7,185 see below ↓

explanation:

With median, it is about the number that appears the most, and since the closest it gets is between $7,071 and $7,195, we have to pick the number that averages in-between which in this case is <em>7,185.</em>

Below, this ↓ array proves the logic.

<em />\left[\begin{array}{ccc}7195&7185&7071\end{array}\right]

5 0
3 years ago
I need help finishing a question. I used the explanation function on the program, but it didn't specify what to do to get the fi
leva [86]

I would compute sqrt(1 + 160pi^2) first to get approximately 39.75093337

Add this to 1 and we have 40.75093337

Then divide over 2pi to get a final approximate result of 6.48571248

So x = 6.48571248 is one approximate solution

In short, I computed \frac{1+\sqrt{1+160\pi^2}}{2\pi} only focusing on the plus for now.

----------------------

If you were to compute \frac{1-\sqrt{1+160\pi^2}}{2\pi} you should get roughly -6.167402596 as your other solution. Each solution can then be plugged into the original equation to check if you get 0 or not. You likely won't land exactly on 0 but you'll get close enough.

6 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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