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Romashka [77]
3 years ago
12

According to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), a capital budgeting project that has a beta equal to zero should be evaluat

ed using a required rate of return equal to the risk-free rate. a. True b. False
Business
1 answer:
lara [203]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

a. True

Explanation:

from the CAPM formula we can derive the statemeent as true.

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)

risk free = 0.05

market rate = 0.12

premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.07

beta(non diversifiable risk) = 0

Ke= 0.05 + 0 (0.07)

Ke 0.05000

As the beta multiplies the difference between the market rate and risk-free rate a beta of zero will nulify the second part of the equation leaving only the risk-free rate. This means the portfolio is not expose to volatility

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Abram is a manager at Runa Marcus Corp., a company that runs a women's lifestyle magazine. Abram's strong points are his creativ
natima [27]

In the context of management skills, Abram has strong technical skills.

<h3><u>Explanation:</u></h3>

Skills are very essential for the determination of success of a person in his career. There are many skills such as interpersonal skills, communication skills, technical skills, management skills,etc. The skills that are very essential in performing certain tasks refers to the technical skills. These are associated with IT, math and science.

In the scenario given, Abram  who is a manger in Runa Marcus Corp.,. Apart from his managerial skills he possess creative writing skills and expertise in photo-editing software. Thus he has stuffs in doing specific task such as working with photo-editing software. Thus, he has strong technical skills.

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3 years ago
Project ____ management involves generating, collecting, disseminating, and storing project information.
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Answer:

communications

Explanation:

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2 years ago
Spectacular Corporation began the year with accounts​receivable, inventory, and prepaid expenses totaling $67,000. At the end of
bixtya [17]

Answer:

Explanation:

The preparation of the Cash Flows from Operating Activities—Indirect Method is shown below:

Cash flow from Operating activities - Indirect method

Net income $82,000

Adjustment made:

Add : Depreciation expense $10,000

Less  : Gain on the sale of land ($3,000)

Less: Increase in current assets -$11,000 ($78,000 - $67,000)

Less: Decrease in current liabilities -$1,000 ($43,000 - $44,000)

Total of Adjustments -$5,000

Net Cash flow from Operating activities $77,000

6 0
3 years ago
Luzadis Company makes furniture using the latest automated technology. The company uses a job-order costing system and applies m
zmey [24]

Answer:

Answer:

1. Overhead over applied= $521,000

2. Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

3. Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

4. Difference between the two CGS= $ 136,060

Explanation:

Predetermined Overhead  Costs $1,152,000

Estimated activity level of 72,000 machine-hours

Overhead rate= $ 1152,000/ 72,000= $ 16 per hour

Manufacturing overhead cost $551,000

Actual hours = 67,000

Overhead applied to WIP = 67,000 * 16= $ 1072,000

Overhead over applied= $ 1072,000 - $551000= $521,000

Part 2:

Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

The Cost of Goods Sold is credited and Factory overhead is debited.

Part 3:

Suppose the overhead is applied in the following ratio

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $37,520          7%   (37520/536,00*100%)

Finished Goods,              $101,840         19%      (101840/536,00*100%)

Cost of Goods Sold       $396, 640        74%     (396,640/536,00*100%)

Total                        $536,000     100%

The  overhead over applied  would be allocated in the following way applying the same ratio as determined above.

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

Part 4:

Cost of Goods Sold ( overhead applied of $396, 640) $1,472,600

Less    Overhead   overapplied      $ 521,000

CGS = $ 951,000

Cost of Goods Sold (overhead applied to WIP & FG) $1,472,600

Less   Overapplied Overhead $ 385,540

CGS=  $ 1087,060

Difference between the two CGS = $ 1087,060- $ 951,000= $ 136,060

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Why did many banks fail after the stock market crashed?
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