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Romashka [77]
3 years ago
12

According to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), a capital budgeting project that has a beta equal to zero should be evaluat

ed using a required rate of return equal to the risk-free rate. a. True b. False
Business
1 answer:
lara [203]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

a. True

Explanation:

from the CAPM formula we can derive the statemeent as true.

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)

risk free = 0.05

market rate = 0.12

premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.07

beta(non diversifiable risk) = 0

Ke= 0.05 + 0 (0.07)

Ke 0.05000

As the beta multiplies the difference between the market rate and risk-free rate a beta of zero will nulify the second part of the equation leaving only the risk-free rate. This means the portfolio is not expose to volatility

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Making selection decisions by subjectively combining sources of information according to the general impression of the hiring sp
adelina 88 [10]
This is often referred to as the clinical approach. The clinical approach is also known as the threshold approach to clinical decision making. This approach combines rational and quantitative information with a general approach to decision making. In this situation, say you were hiring a new employee, a person using the clinical approach would look at their resume in how they match up with numbers and on paper to the candidate their looking for but also who they are as a person in a general sense. 
7 0
3 years ago
Cullumber Company has the following balances in selected accounts on December 31, 2020.
wolverine [178]

Answer and Explanation:

The adjusting entries are shown below:

1. Interest expense [$11,400 × 9% × 4 ÷ 12] $342  

    To Interest payable  $342

(being accrued interest expense is recorded)  

2. Supplies expense [$2,200 - $820] $1,380  

     To Supplies  $1,380

[Being supplies expense is recorded]  

3. Depreciation expense $1,200  

     To Accumulated depreciation-Equipment $1,200

[Being depreciation expense is recorded]  

4 Insurance expense [$3,960 × 7 ÷ 12] $2,310  

          To Prepaid insurance  $2,310

[being insurance expense is recorded]  

5  Unearned service revenue $7,000  

             To Service revenue $7,000

[Being revenue from unearned is recorded]  

6 Accounts receivable $4,200  

         To Service revenue  $4,200

[Being accrued service revenue is recorded]  

7 Salaries expense [$5,400 ×  3 ÷ 5] $3,240  

          To Salaries payable $3,240

[being accrued salaries expense is recorded]

4 0
3 years ago
Beginning inventory was $50,000. Inventory purchased during the year cost $75,000. Inventory on hand at year-end was $40,000. Co
marusya05 [52]

Answer:

The Cost of Goods Sold or COGS for the period was $85000

Explanation:

The cost of goods sold is the value or cost of inventory that has been sold off during the period. The Cost of Goods Sold of COGS can be calculated as follows,

COGS = Opening Inventory  +  Purchases  -  Closing Inventory

COGS = 50000  +  75000  -  40000

COGS = $85000

So, the Cost of Goods Sold or COGS for the period was $85000

5 0
3 years ago
Suppose that Fizzo and Pop Hop are the only two firms that sell orange soda. The following payoff matrix shows the profit (in mi
S_A_V [24]

Answer: See explanation

Explanation:

A pay off matrix has been attached.

If Fizzo decides to advertise, it will earn a profit of ($8 million) if Pop Hop advertises and a profit of ($15 million) if Pop Hop does not advertise.

If Fizzo decides not to advertise, then, it will earn a profit of ($2 million) if Pop Hop advertises and on the other hand, a profit of ($11 million) if Pop Hop does not advertise.

If Pop Hop advertises, then Fizzo makes a higher profit if it chooses (to advertise). On the other hand, if Pop Hop doesn't advertise, then Fizzo will make higher profit if it chooses (to advertise).

In a scenario whereby the firms act independently, the strategies that they will choose is that that both of the firms will prefer and choose to advertise.

8 0
2 years ago
Byron Corporation forecasts that its income will be $21,000 next year. The firm pays out 30 percent of earnings as dividends to
noname [10]

Answer:

RE break point = $24500

Explanation:

21,000 net income

30% OF Earnings as dividends

21,000 x 30% = 6,300 dividends

Retained Earnings (assuming no previous beginning value)

21,000 - 6,300 = 14,700

RE break point = 14,700/0.6 = 24500

What does the $24,500 mean?

This mean that the company can raise financing for this ammount without changing their capital structure (60% equity 40% debt)

If the company wants to finance for more, it will need to raise new shares or chance their capital structure, and therefore the WACC will change

8 0
3 years ago
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