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ss7ja [257]
3 years ago
6

Maria ran 4 7/8 miles on monday she ran 2 3/8 miles on friday, how many miles did maria run altogether?

Mathematics
2 answers:
KatRina [158]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

7 2/8 !!

Step-by-step explanation:

sergejj [24]3 years ago
5 0
7 2/8. you add the base numbers and the fractions to get 6 10/8. then you have to move 8/8 from the fraction and add it to the base number if that makes sense
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which graph represnts a line with a slope ot -2/3 and a y-intercept equal to that of the line y=2/3x-2?
tia_tia [17]
The graph will be as shown in attached figure

4 0
3 years ago
What go in the blank
s2008m [1.1K]

Answer:

inverse

Step-by-step explanation:

¬ is the symbol for not.  When we have not a  implies not b  we have a inverse

4 0
3 years ago
A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2\%2%2, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector rando
kipiarov [429]

The data in the question seems a bit erroneous. I am writing the correct question below:

A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2%, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector randomly selects 4 chips for an inspection. Assuming the chips are independent, what is the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective? Lets break this problem up into smaller pieces to understand the strategy behind solving it.

Answer:

The probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective is 0.0776.

Step-by-step explanation:

The question states that the probability of defective chips is 2% i.e. 0.02. Let p denote the probability of selecting a defective chip so, p = 0.02

An inspector selects 4 chips, which means n=4 and we need to compute the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective. Let X be the number of defective chips selected. We need to compute P(X≥1) which means either 1, 2, 3 or 4 chips can be defective.

We will use the binomial distribution formula to solve this problem. The formula is:

<u>P(X=x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ</u>

where n = total no. of trials

          p = probability of success

          x = no. of successful trials

          q = probability of failure = 1-p

we have n=4, p=0.02 and q=1-0.02=0.98.

We need to compute P(X≥1) which is equal to:

P(X≥1) = P(X=1) + P(X=2) + P(X=3) + P(X=4)

A shorter method to do this is to use the total probability theorem:

P(X≥1) = 1 - P(X<1)

          = 1 - P(X=0)

          = 1 - ⁴C₀ (0.02)⁰(0.98)⁴⁻⁰

          = 1 - (0.98)⁴

          = 1 - 0.9224

P(X≥1) = 0.0776

4 0
4 years ago
What is the cost if a $1,200 washing machine after a discount if 1/5 the original price
Fantom [35]
1/5 (or 20%) of $1,200 is $240
$1,200 - $240 = $960
The cost of a $1,200 washing machine after a discount of 1/5 (20%) is $960
3 0
3 years ago
6 47/75 as a percentage
almond37 [142]

Answer:

662.6%

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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