The answers is the last one... hope this helps :)
It could be argued that the Mexican Revolution was fundamentally a conflict between "<span>a. Conservative landowners and landless peasants," since it was impossible for these peasants to have any type of upward mobility. </span>
The political climates in Great Britain, France, and Russia was known to be different. Russia was more of unified while Great Britain and France were said to be liberal.
The Economic changes was mostly due to the industrial revolution and this in some pact shows some flaws in the polical conditions of these countries as at that time.
As factories began to increase in numbers, peasants did moved to the city thereby increasing the city populations.
The Economic changes reduces the gap that once existed between the rich and the poor as a lot of middle class people became the factory owners
Due to the economic changes, we can therefore sew that Great Britain was not that liberal before and this economic growth made them more Liberal as there was economic growth and prosperity.
Learn more about Political Conditions from
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My guess would be B. hope this helped!
