3 years ago

Why does 498 * 8.32 equal 4 1/4 3.36

Mathematics

2 answers:

Svetradugi [14.3K]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

The answer is 4143. 36 but I don't know why there are fractions

Step-by-step explanation:

soldi70 [24.7K]3 years ago

6 0

It is 59.6 I believe

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Hey there!

To solve this, we can use division. First, lets turn $1 \frac{1}{4}$ into an improper fraction:

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Hope it helps and have a great day!

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