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raketka [301]
3 years ago
15

Maria is flagged as a special customer at your firm because she is a satisfied customer, returns to your company to buy, puts he

r reputation on the line to tell others about you, and convinces others to purchase from you, which suggests she is on the ________ rung of the loyalty ladder.
Business
1 answer:
KIM [24]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:   Advocate

                     

Explanation: In simple words, advocate level is the topmost stage in the loyalty ladder. In this stage, the customer gets used to for the brand and along with repurchasing it he or she also works as a promotional toll for the brand.

In the given case, Maria has been repurchasing the products from the firm and is also praising the brand online. Hence we can conclude that she is on the advocate rung.

You might be interested in
The demand for one of X Company’s products has declined in recent years. The product is manufactured using designated equipment
djverab [1.8K]

Answer:

$230,000

Revised Question:

The demand for one of X Company's products has declined in recent years. The product is manufactured using designated equipment that originally cost $1,300,000 and has a carrying value of $720,000. As of the current date, December 31, 2012, it is expected that only an additional 400,000 units are likely to be sold over the remaining life of the equipment. Each unit sells for $3 and has a manufacturing cost of $1.50. Relevant information as of December 31, 2018:

The undiscounted future cash inflows from the sale of products over the life of the equipment is expected to be $600,000.

The present value of the future cash inflows from the sale of products over the life of the equipment, calculated at the company's cost of capital, is $475,000.

The equipment has a fair value of $490,000 on the date of evaluation.

How much of an impairment loss will X Company recognize in 2018?

Explanation:

IAS 36 Impairment of Assets states that company's or entity's assets can not be carried at more than their Recoverable Amount

<em>Recoverable Amount</em> equals to higher of Fair Value less cost of disposal and Value in Use

<em>Value in Use</em> is net present value (NPV) of future cashflows generated by an asset.

Lets calculate the Recoverable amount of the equipment of Company X:

Fair Value less Cost of disposal = $490,000 - 0 = $490,000

Value in Use = discounted future cashflows from equipment =  $475,000

<em>So Recoverable Amount is higher of Fair Value less cost of disposal and Value in Use i.e $490,000</em>

<h3>Impairment Loss = Carrying Value - Recoverable Amount </h3><h3>                              = $720,000 - $490,000</h3><h3>                              = $230,000</h3>
5 0
3 years ago
Does supply curve shift to the left or right​
erastova [34]

Answer:

An increase in the change in supply shifts the supply curve to the right, while a decrease in the change in supply shifts the supply curve left....

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Jane is not married and has no children she is 35 and owns here own home under which status is she most likely to file
uysha [10]

She would be most likely to file under SINGLE :)

Hope this helps

6 0
3 years ago
Exercise 10-24 (Part Level Submission) Oriole Company receives $385,000 when it issues a $385,000, 5%, mortgage note payable to
Vikentia [17]

Answer:

Mortgage Payable Table is prepared in an MS Excel file which is attached with this answer, please find it

Explanation:

The loan which is received by a person for purchase of real estate property or alternatively existing property owner to raise fund from the property. The mortgage are paid with interest over a specific period of time in installment of monthly quarterly semiannually or yearly.

Installment includes both principal payment and Interest Payment.

In this question The first payment on December 31, 2018 included

Total Payment = $37,092

Interest Payment = 385,000 x 5% = $19,250

Principal Payment = $37,092 - $19,250 = $17,842

Download xlsx
3 0
3 years ago
Wadding Corporation applies manufacturing overhead to products on the basis of standard machine-hours. For the most recent month
kkurt [141]

Answer:

$114 unfavorable

Explanation:

For computing the overall variable overhead efficiency variance  first we have to need to find out the standard variable overhead rate which is shown below:

= ($11,680 + $41,900) ÷ 4,700 hours

= $11.4

Now the  variable overhead efficiency variance is

= standard variable overhead rate × (Actual machine hours - standard machine hours)

= $11.4 × (4,740 machine hours - 4,730 machine hours)

= $114 unfavorable

This unfavorable indicates the actual hours are more than the standard hours

6 0
3 years ago
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