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zmey [24]
3 years ago
5

On June 2, Year 1, Tory, Inc. issued $500,000 of 10%, 15-year bonds at 98.8. Interest is payable semiannually on June 1 and Dece

mber 1. Discount at issuance was $6,000. Tory uses the straight-line method to amortize the discount, which does not differ materially from GAAP in this instance. On June 2, Year 5, Tory retired half of the bonds at 98. What is the net amount that Tory should use in calculating the gain or loss on retirement of debt
Business
1 answer:
makkiz [27]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$247,800

Explanation:

Discount on bonds payable = $6,000

The discount on bonds payable should be amortized during the 30 coupon payments = $6,000 / 30 = $200

Only 4 years have passed until the partial redemption of the bonds, $200 x 8 = $1,600 of the discount on bonds payable had been amortized. The carrying value of the bonds = $500,000 - ($6,000 - $1,600) = $495,600

Since 50% of the bonds are being retired, the net amount used to calculate the retirement = $495,600 / 2 = $247,800

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Suppose that the market demand curve for bean sprouts is given by P = 1,660 - 4Q, where P is the price and Q is total industry o
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Answer:

In equilibrium, total output by the two firms will be option e= 300.  

Q = q_{1} + q_{2}

Q = 100 + 200

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Data Given:

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where, P = price and Q = total industry output

Each firm's marginal cost = $60 per unit of output

So, we know that Q =  q_{1} + q_{2}

where q_{} being the individual firm output.

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Including the marginal cost of firm 1 and multiplying the whole equation by q_{1}

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X =  1660q_{1} - 4q_{1} ^{2} - 4q_{1}q_{2} - 60q_{1}

Taking the derivative w.r.t to q_{1}, we will get:

X^{'} = 1660 - 8q_{1} - 4q_{2} - 60 = 0

Making rearrangements into the equation:

8q_{1} + q_{2} = 1660 - 60

8q_{1} + q_{2} = 1600

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P = 1660 - 4q_{1} - 4q_{2}

Let's suppose new equation is Y

Y =  1660q_{2} - 4q_{1}q_{2} -4q_{2} ^{2} - 60q_{2}

Pugging in the value of q_{1}

Y =  1660q_{2} - 4q_{2}(200 - 0.5 q_{2}) -4q_{2} ^{2} - 60q_{2}

Y =  1660q_{2} - 800q_{2} +2q_{2} ^{2} -4q_{2} ^{2} - 60q_{2}

Y =  1600q_{2} - 800q_{2} -2q_{2} ^{2}

Taking the derivative w.r.t q_{2}

Y^{'} = 1600 - 800 - 4q_{2} = 0

Solving for q_{2}

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Plugging in the value of q_{2} to get the value of q_{1}

q_{1} = 200 - 0.5 (200)

q_{1} = 200 - 100

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Q = q_{1} + q_{2}

Q = 100 + 200

Q = 300

Hence, in equilibrium, total output by the two firms will be option

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