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tamaranim1 [39]
3 years ago
6

In which situation is it acceptable for an it professional to access corporate secrets?

Business
1 answer:
NNADVOKAT [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

the answer you have now is correct.

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Determining the true cash balance, starting with the unadjusted book balance
Law Incorporation [45]

Answer:

True Cash Balance $7,688

Explanation:

The computation of the true cash balance is shown below:

Unadjusted Cash Balance as of May 31 $7,176

Add: Interest Earned   $14

Note Collected by Bank $600

Less: NSF check ($67)

Less Bank charges ($35)

True Cash Balance $7,688

Hence, the true cash balance is $7,688 and the same is to be considered

3 0
3 years ago
Swifty Co. uses the gross method to record sales made on credit. On July 1, 2020, it made sales of 69,000 with terms 2/10 n/30.
wel

Answer:

July 1, 2020

Debit  : Accounts Receivable $69,000

Credit : Sales $69,000

July 9, 2020

Debit  : Cash $62,100

Debit : Discount allowed $1,380

Credit : Accounts Receivable $69,000

Explanation:

Note : Remove the discount from final payment.

The required journal entries for Swifty Co have been prepared above.

4 0
3 years ago
A corporation had a change in net working capital of $40,000 this year. At the end of the year the balance sheet showed $150,000
FinnZ [79.3K]

Answer:

\large\boxed{\large\boxed{\$ 110,000}}

Explanation:

<em>Net working capital</em> is the difference between the current assets and the current liabilities:

          Net\text{ }working\text{ }capital=Current\text{ }assets-Current\text{ }liabilities

<em><u>Change in the net working capital</u></em><u> (ΔNWC = </u><em><u>$40,000</u></em><u>)</u>

        \Delta NWC=\Delta\text{Current assets}-\Delta\text{Current liabilities}

        \Delta\text{Current assets}=\$ 150,000-\$ 120,000=\$ 30,000        

         \Delta\text{Current liabilities}=\$ 100,000-x

          \$ 40,000=\$ 30,000-(\$ 100,000-x)

          x=\$ 40,000-\$ 30,000+\$ 100,000=\$ 110,000

7 0
4 years ago
If you cross the _____, you will either pass into the next day or the previous day, depending on whether you are moving east or
IrinaK [193]
Equator great circle route
5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
-Select- risk is the risk of a decline in a bond's value due to an increase in interest rates. This risk is higher on bonds that
Eduardwww [97]

Answer:

Find answers below.

Explanation:

Risk management can be defined as the process of identifying, evaluating, analyzing and controlling potential threats or risks present in a business as an obstacle to its capital, revenues and profits. This ultimately implies that, risk management involves prioritizing course of action or potential threats in order to mitigate the risk that are likely to arise from such business decisions.

Price risk is the risk of a decline in a bond's value due to an increase in interest rates. This risk is higher on bonds that have long maturities than on bonds that will mature in the near future.

Reinvestment risk is the risk that a decline in interest rates will lead to a decline in income from a bond portfolio. This risk is obviously high on callable bonds. It is also high on short-term bonds because the shorter the bond's maturity, the fewer the years before the relatively high old-coupon bonds will be replaced with new low-coupon issues. Which type of risk is more relevant to an investor depends on the investor's investment horizon, which is the period of time an investor plans to hold a particular investment. Longer maturity bonds have high price risk but low reinvestment risk, while higher coupon bonds have a higher level of reinvestment risk and a lower level of price risk. To account for the effects related to both a bond's maturity and coupon, many analysts focus on a measure called duration, which is the weighted average of the time it takes to receive each of the bond's cash flows.

The bonds which would have the largest duration is a 10 year - zero coupon bond.

3 0
3 years ago
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