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irina1246 [14]
3 years ago
8

Reduce 18/32 to lowest terms

Mathematics
2 answers:
erastova [34]3 years ago
6 0
Reducing to lowest terms simply means dividing both the numerator and the denominator by the same amount so as to get an equivalent fraction that has lower numbers so it looks nicer.

For example, we know that 1/4 = 2/8 = 4/16 = 10/40.

So for 18/32, let's start by diving both numbers by 2, to give 9/16. 9 and 16 can't be divided by the same number so 18/32 in it's lowest terms is 9/16.
devlian [24]3 years ago
4 0
By lowest terms, it simply means to it's simplest form. To do that, you have to find a number that can divide the two numbers involved. That number is 2. When 2 divides 18, you get 9. When 2 divides 32, you get 16. So you get;
9/16. And that is the final answer because nothing else can divide the two numbers. To make you understand better, i am using a different fraction. So;
16/8
  Once again, 2 can divide. But you can also use 8. If you use 2, it will be 8/4, 2 can still divide, so that will be 4/2. 2 divides again, making it 2/1, which is the same as 2.
   If you use 8, it will be 2/1. Which is still 2. So as you can see, no matter the number used, the answer remains the same. Hope i helped. Have a nice day.
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What is the area of shaded section of the circle?​
bazaltina [42]

Answer:

≈ 565.5 units²

Step-by-step explanation:

The area (A) of the shaded sector = area of circle × fraction of circle

A = πr² × \frac{162}{360} ← r is the radius

   = π × 20² × \frac{162}{360}

   = 400π × 0.45 ≈ 565.5 units²

4 0
3 years ago
Determine whether y varies with x. If so, find the constant of variation and write the function rule.
ira [324]

Answer:  Yes, y does vary directly with x.

Constant of variation = 1/4

The function rule is  y = (1/4)x

=========================================================

Explanation:

Let's assume that y does vary directly with x.

If that's the case, then we have an equation in the form y = kx, where k is the constant of variation.

Solving for k gets us k = y/x

For each row, divide the y value over the x value

  • row one: k = y/x = 14/56 = 0.25
  • row two:  k = y/x = 20/80 = 0.25
  • row three: k = y/x = 22/88 = 0.25

Each row yields the value k = 0.25 and it fully confirms y does vary directly with x.

So y = kx becomes y = 0.25x as the function rule, which is equivalent to y = (1/4)x

6 0
1 year ago
78 is what percent of 110
irinina [24]

Answer: 70.909090909091%

Step-by-step explanation: Reading through the problem we have <em>78 is</em>, that's 78 equals, <em>what percent</em>, x/100, <em>of 110</em>, times 110.

It's important to understand that <em>percent</em> means over 100 so what percent would simply mean <em>x/100</em> or any variable but I will be using x.

So we have the equation 78 = \frac{x}{100} *110

So cross canceling the 110 and 100 to 11 and 10, we have 78 = \frac{11x}{10}

Multiply both sides by 10 to get rid

of the fraction and we have 780 = 11x.

Now divide both sides by 11 and 70.909090909091 = x.

So, 78 is 70.909090909091% of 110.

Work is attached in the image provided.

8 0
3 years ago
Question:
pishuonlain [190]
There is no rectangle shown.

To find area, you multiply the rectangle’s length by its width. If it comes out to be a decimal and you need to round it by the nearest tenth, then you round it to the right of the decimal point.

Ex: 2.34 -> 2.3

Then, to find how much square inches are equal to square ft, you divide the square inches by 12, I believe.
8 0
3 years ago
Find the missing side. Round to<br> the nearest tenth.<br> 10<br> 33°<br> х<br> x = [ ?<br> ]
geniusboy [140]

Answer:

x = 15.4

Step-by-step explanation:

Reference angle = 33°

Opposite side reference angle = 10

Adjacent side = x

Therefore, we would apply the trigonometric function, TOA.

Thus:

Tan 33° = Opposite/Adjacent

Tan 33° = 10/x

Multiply both sides by x

x*Tan 33° = 10

Divide both sides by Tan 33°

x = 10/Tan 33°

x = 15.3986496

x = 15.4 (nearest tenth)

3 0
3 years ago
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