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krek1111 [17]
3 years ago
7

PLEASE HELP WILL GIVE 1ST RIGHT ANSWER AS BRAINIEST

Mathematics
2 answers:
Ne4ueva [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

26π

Step-by-step explanation:

Hmm... This one is a little hard to understand because of the LaTeX.

Any way, way back to the question.  A useful piece of information:

<u>The formula for finding the circumference of a circle is 2πr or π · d :</u>

We first need to find out what x is.

Since 2 times the radius is the diameter, we can set up our equation like this:

2(x + 6) = 3x + 5

Solving gives:

2x + 12 = 3x + 5.

We subtract 2x from both sides:

+12 = x + 5

Subtract 5:

So x = 7.

Now we can plug-and-chug:

7 + 6 = 13 times 2pi (this is the radius)

21 + 5 = 26 times pi.

<u>Check:</u>

When we check 13 (radius) times 2 should equal the diameter(26)

13 * 2 = 26.

So we are correct. The answer 26π is correct.

denis-greek [22]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

26pi

Step-by-step explanation:

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What is the product in lowest terms? 1/6 • 5/7
Pani-rosa [81]

Multiply the numerator together and the denominators together.

1 x 5 / 6 . 7 = 5/42

42 is not a multiple of 5 so the answer is already in the lowest term.

The answer is 5/42

4 0
3 years ago
Hope Amelia Solo, the American soccer goalkeeper, World Cup champion and two-time Olympic gold medalist, allows goals at a rate
Nuetrik [128]

Answer:

3.70% probability she allows more than one goal

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

\mu is the mean in the given time interval.

X~Pois(0.3)

This means that \mu = 0.3

In her next match, what is the probability she allows more than one goal?

Either she allows at most one goal, or she allows more than one goal. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

P(X \leq 1) + P(X > 1) = 1

We want P(X > 1). So

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1)

In which

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}

P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-0.3}*(0.3)^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.7408

P(X = 1) = \frac{e^{-0.3}*(0.3)^{1}}{(1)!} = 0.2222

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.7408 + 0.2222 = 0.9630

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1) = 1 - 0.9630 = 0.0370

3.70% probability she allows more than one goal

3 0
3 years ago
Please help me.<br> Solve for x in the diagram below:
larisa86 [58]

Answer:

x = 40

Step-by-step explanation:

The angles are vertical angles.  We know that vertical angles are equal

120 = 3x

Divide each side by 3

120/3 = 3x/3

40 =x

8 0
3 years ago
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aniked [119]

Answer:

40

Step-by-step explanation:

4 times 10 equals 40

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8 0
3 years ago
Solve this problem: –282 – (+1,017) = ? <br> A. –735 B. –1,299 C. 735 D. 1,299
aniked [119]
-282 -(+1,017) 

-282 - 1,017 = -1,299  Choice B.

Since both numbers carry the same sign, you simply add the numbers and transport the sign to the answer. In this case, the sign is a negative sign, thus 282 + 1017 = 1,299; transport the negative sign, it becomes -1,299.
6 0
4 years ago
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