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ivolga24 [154]
3 years ago
15

You are evaluating two different silicon wafer milling machines. The Techron I costs $276,000, has a three-year life, and has pr

etax operating costs of $75,000 per year. The Techron II costs $480,000, has a five-year life, and has pretax operating costs of $48,000 per year. For both milling machines, use straight-line depreciation to zero over the project’s life and assume a salvage value of $52,000. If your tax rate is 21 percent and your discount rate is 12 percent, compute the EAC for both machines. (A negative answer should be indicated by a minus sign. Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answers to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)
Business
1 answer:
kramer3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Techron I

-$154,842

Techron II

-$144,981

Explanation:

Techron I

Cash Flow From Year 1 to Year 3

Pretax operating costs             ($75,000)

Depreciation ($276,000 / 3)   <u>($92,000)</u>

Profit before tax                       ($167,000)

Tax (21% x $167,000)                <u>$35,070</u>

Profit after tax                           ($131,930)

Add back Depreciation            <u>$92,000</u>

Cash Flow after tax                   (<u>$39,930)</u>

Terminal Value = Salvage value - Tax = $52,000 - ($52,000 x 21%) = $41,080

NPV = ($276,000) + [ (39,930) x (1+12%)^-1] + [ (39,930) x (1+12%)^-2] + [ (39,930) x (1+12%)^-3] = ($276,000) + ($35,652) + ($31,832) + ($28,421) = ($371,905)

EAC = NPV/(1-(1+r)^-n)/r

EAC = -371,905 / ( 1 - ( 1 + 12% )^-3/12% = -$154,842

Techron II

Cash Flow From Year 1 to Year 3

Pretax operating costs             ($48,000)

Depreciation ($480,000 / 5)   <u>($96,000)</u>

Profit before tax                       ($144,000)

Tax (21% x $167,000)                <u>$30,240</u>

Profit after tax                           ($113,760)

Add back Depreciation            <u>$96,000</u>

Cash Flow after tax                   (<u>$17,746)</u>

Terminal Value = Salvage value - Tax = $52,000 - ($52,000 x 21%) = $41,080

NPV = ($480,000) + [ (17,746) x (1+12%)^-1] + [ (17,746) x (1+12%)^-2] + [ (17,746) x (1+12%)^-3] = ($480,000) + ($15,845) + ($14,147) + ($12631) = ($522,623)

EAC = NPV/(1-(1+r)^-n)/r

EAC = -522,623 / ( 1 - ( 1 + 12% )^-5/12% = -$144,981

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On July 1, SHady resort borrowed 350,000 cash by signing a 10-year, 8.5 % installment note requiring equal payments each June 30
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Answer:

$29,750

Explanation:

Since the Annual Payments of $53,343 are all equal for the period of 10 years at 8.5% installment note, therefore we Simple interest formula here to calculate the interest amount;

I = Prt

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3 0
3 years ago
Penn Station is saving money to build a new loading platform. Two years ago, they set aside $24,000 for this purpose. Today, tha
vekshin1

Answer:

0,087792106  = rate

Explanation:

We need to calculate the interest of the investment

principal x (1 + rate)^time = value

replacing with the know values

24,000 x  (1+rate)^2   =  28,399

28,399/24,000      = (1 + rate)^2

sqrt (28,399/24,000)  -1 = rate

now we solve for the unknown value

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4 0
3 years ago
Suppose your company needs $16 million to build a new assembly line. Your target debt−equity ratio is .7. The flotation cost for
kumpel [21]

Answer:

7.76%

Explanation:

The computation of the weighted average flotation cost is shown below:

= Weightage of equity × flotation cost for new equity +  Weightage of debt × flotation cost for debt

Since the debt-equity ratio is 0.7 which means the debt value is 7 and the equity value is 10 so the total firm would be 1.70

So, Weighted of debt = (0.7 ÷ 1.70) =0.411

And, the weighted of common stock = (Common stock ÷ total firm)

                                                              = (1) ÷ (1.70)

                                                              = 0.588    

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the value would equal to

= (0.588 × 9%) + (0.411 × 6%)

= 0.05292% + 0.02466%

= 7.76%

4 0
3 years ago
On December 1, Christy Co. accepted a 60-day, 6%, $1,000 note due January 30. On December 31, the appropriate year-end adjusting
muminat

Answer:

Entry for the repayment involve a Debit of Note Payable of $1,060 and a Credit of Cash of $1,060.

Explanation:

By January 30 , 2 months interest would have expired and the journal entries are as follows :

December 31

Interest expense $30 (debit)

Note Payable $30 (credit)

January 30

Interest expense $30 (debit)

Note Payable $30 (credit)

Thus the <em>repayment will be at the carrying cost </em>of the note payable as follows :

Note Payable $1,060 (debit)

Cash $1,060 (credit)

Conclusion :

Entry for the repayment involve a Debit of Note Payable of $1,060 and a credit of Cash of $1,060.

3 0
4 years ago
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