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kondor19780726 [428]
3 years ago
14

- A plane travelled 1800 km & took 3 hrs to get there. It took

Mathematics
1 answer:
alexira [117]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:2415

Step-by-step explanation:

You might be interested in
Twenty-eight slices of pizza cost $12. Approximately how much would 70 slices cost?
Mademuasel [1]

Answer:

$30.

Step-by-step explanation:

70/28 = 2.5

12 x 2.5 = 30

5 0
2 years ago
Seven pieces of rope have an average (arithmetic mean) length of 68 centimeters and a median length of 84 centimeters. If the le
Svet_ta [14]

Answer:

The maximum possible length, in centimeters, of the longest piece of rope is 134 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the seven pieces be a,b,c,d,e,f,g

Average of 7 pieces of ropes  =68

Average = \frac{\text{Sum of all lengths}}{\text{No. of pieces}}

68= \frac{\text{Sum of all lengths}}{7}

68 \times 7 =\text{a+b+c+d+e+f+g}

476=\text{a+b+c+d+e+f+g} --A

We are given that the median length of a piece of rope is 84 centimeters.

We arrange the pieces in the ascending order

So, median will be the length of 4th piece

So, d = 84 cm

the length of piece a,b,c will be less than 84 and the value of e,f,g must be greater than or equal to 84

Let us suppose the length of a,b,c be x

Let us suppose the length of e,f be 84

The length of the longest piece of rope is 14 centimeters more than 4 times the length of the shortest piece of rope

So, g = 4x+14

Substitute the value in A

476=x+x+x+84+84+84+4x+14

476=7x+266

\frac{476-266}{7}=x

30=x

g = 4x+14=4(30)+14=134

Hence the maximum possible length, in centimeters, of the longest piece of rope is 134 cm

7 0
3 years ago
Which equation can be used to solve for the measure of angle abc? tan(x) = startfraction 2.4 over 10 endfraction tan(x) = startf
Len [333]

The equation can be used to solve for the measure of angle abc is sinx = 2.4/10.3

<h3 /><h3>SOH CAH TOA identity</h3>

The identity is used to find the measure of sides and acute angles of a right triangle

From the diagram shown, <ABC is the reference abgle hence;

Opposite side = 2,4cm

Hypotenuse .=10.3cm

According to the identity

sin x = opp/hyp

sinx = 2.4/10.3
sinx = 0.233

x =  13.47 degrees

Hence the equation can be used to solve for the measure of angle abc is sinx = 2.4/10.3

Learn more on SOH CAH TOA here: brainly.com/question/20734777

3 0
2 years ago
What is the surface area of the cylinder d = 10 h = 7
Anna11 [10]
The answer is 120\pi. Hope I helped!
3 0
3 years ago
You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
4 years ago
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