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REY [17]
3 years ago
10

Paar Corporation bought 100 percent of Kimmel, Inc., on January 1, 2015. On that date, Paar’s equipment (10-year remaining life)

has a book value of $420,000 but a fair value of $520,000. Kimmel has equipment (10-year remaining life) with a book value of $272,000 but a fair value of $400,000. Paar uses the equity method to record its investment in Kimmel. On December 31, 2017, Paar has equipment with a book value of $294,000 but a fair value of $445,200. Kimmel has equipment with a book value of $190,400 but a fair value of $357,000. The consolidated balance for the Equipment account as of December 31, 2017 is $574,000. What would be the impact on consolidated balance for the Equipment account as of December 31, 2017 if the parent had applied the initial value method rather than the equity method?
Business
1 answer:
iogann1982 [59]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The method the parent use will have no effect on consolidated total because it is only for internal reporting purpose.

Explanation:

Paar's equipment book value—12/31/15 of                   $294,000

Add Kimmel's equipment book value—12/31/15 of    $190,400

Add Original acquisition-date allocation to

Kimmel's equipment of ($400,000 − $272,000) =          $128,000

Less Amortization of Allocation

($128,000/10 years * 3 years) =                               ($38,400)

<h3>Equals Consolidated Equipment of     $574,000 </h3>

The method the parent use will have no effect on consolidated total because it is only for internal reporting purpose.

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Bodin Company manufactures finger splints for kids who get tendonitis from playing video games. The firm had the following inven
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

Raw Material $191,000

Direct labor $300,000

Actual manufacturing overhead $170,000

Actual selling and administrative expenses $115,000

The company applies manufacturing overhead at the rate of 60 percent of direct-labor cost.

1.

Prime Cost = Direct Material + Direct Labor

Prime Cost = $191,000 + $300,000 = 491,000

2.

Cost of goods manufactured                                    $

Direct material                                                      $191,000

Add: Direct Labor                                                $300,000

Add: Manufacturing overhead                           <u>$170,000</u>

Manufacturing cost                                             <u>$661,000</u>

3.

Manufacturing cost                                             $661,000

Add: Work in process inventory at January 1    $235,000  

Less: Work in process inventory at January 31 <u>$251,000</u>

Cost of Goods Manufactured                             <u>$645,000</u>

4.

Cost of Goods Manufactured                             $645,000

Add: Finished Good inventory at January 1      $125,000  

Less: Finished Good inventory at January 31   <u>$117,000</u>

Cost of Goods Sold                                            <u>$653,000</u>

5.

Manufacturing overhead Account Balance

Actual overhead                = $175,000

Manufacturing overhead   = $180,000  (300,000 x 60% )

Over applied manufacturing overhead = $180,000 - $175,000

Over applied manufacturing overhead = $5,000

* Data was missing for the calculations, complete question is attached with this answer, Please find that.

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3 years ago
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3 years ago
Stock R has a beta of 2.5, Stock S has a beta of 0.55, the required return on an average stock is 13%, and the risk-free rate of
avanturin [10]

Answer:

19.50%

Explanation:

In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below

Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)

For Stock R

= 3% + 2.5 × (13% - 3%)

= 3% + 2.5 × 10%

= 3% + 25%

= 28.00%

For Stock S

= 3% + 0.55 × (13% - 3%)

= 3% + 0.55 × 10%

= 3% + 5.5%

= 8.50%

The difference would be

= 28% - 8.5%

= 19.50%

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What is the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)?
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A federal agency that regulates the stock market
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In a within-groups design, each participant experiences all levels of the –. There are two types of this design. The first is th
kati45 [8]

In a within-groups design, there are two types of this design which are:

  • The repeated-measures design
  • The concurrent-measures design

<h3>What is  within-groups design?</h3>

A within-groups design is known to be a kind of an experimental design that is one where each participant is said to often experiences the total levels of the independent variable.

Note that there are two types of this design which is the repeated-measures design whose role is to measure or one  where participants are said to be opened to a lot of levels of the independent variable and they are known to be tested on the dependent variable after every exposure.

The second is said to be the concurrent-measures design and this is one where participants are said to communicate with the different levels of the independent variable in a simultaneous way..

Hence, In a within-groups design, there are two types of this design which are:

  • The repeated-measures design
  • The concurrent-measures design

Learn more about concurrent-measures design  from

brainly.com/question/25662476

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2 years ago
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