Answer:
e=1
Step-by-step explanation:
(e+1)×3=6
3e+3=6
3e=6-3
3e=3
e=3/3
e=1
:)
The answer is every long.
Step-by-step explanation:
as the figure shows
There is no mode in these scores.
This is because mode is when two numbers show up the same like 4 and 4.
Answer:
Manish has Rs630 while Jhanavi has Rs168.
Step-by-step explanation:
The fraction Manish would have left would be subtracting the fraction on savings as well as that spent on the mall. Which would be;
1 -( 1/2 + 1/4)=1 -3/4 = 1/4
Meaning Manish had 1/4 of his allowance left on him.
Which means 1/4 × Rs. 2520=Rs630
Similarly for Jhanavi, we have :
The fraction left as
1-(1/3 +3/5) = 1 - ( 14/15) = 1/15
Meaning 1/15 of the allowance got remains which is;
1/15 × Rs. 2520= Rs.168
Answer:
x = 5/3
Step-by-step explanation:
You ALWAYS want your term to be by itself!! So what you need to do is move your constant away from it.
Step 1: Adjust as needed, subtract 10 from both sides of your equation. It should end up like this.
-3x = 5 - 10
Step 2: Solve as needed before continuing equation.
-3x = -5
Step 3: Now you need to get your term by itself. You should divide -3 on both sides of your equation so you should get something like this.
x = -5 / -3
Step 4: You're basically done now! Just simplify! NEGATIVES CROSS EACH OTHER OUT!!!
x = 5/3 OR 1.6
<em>KEY:</em>
<em>Negative and Negative = Positive</em>
<em>Negative and Positive = Negative</em>
<em>Positive and Positive = Positive</em>
