Answer:
i dont know uuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuuu
Step-by-step explanation:
Hey there! :)
Answer:
2nd choice.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given:
630 = 42f.
Divide both sides by 42 to solve for f:
630/42 = 42f/42
f = $15.
This equation is not an inequality, so a line would not be graphed on the number-line. The proper way to show a single solution would be with a point. Therefore:
The second choice is correct. The number line has a single point at f = 15.
Answer:
A=21°;B=53°;C=106°
Step-by-step explanation:
I hope it helps.
I will give an instance to answer this. Suppose that we have 1,000 days. And it was given above that machine A has 10 % chances to malfunctioned and B has a 7%. So machine A has 100 days that malfunctioned while machine B has 70 days. And 7 days that both machines malfunctioned (10%x7%). Next is to add 100 days from machine A and 70 days from machine B and subtract with the 7 days where both of them malfunctioned. So the result is 163 days out of 1000 that we expect an incidence of failure. So the chance of machine B to malfunctioned is 70 days. 70/163 is 42.93%
4 – 3(x – y) = –8x + 2
Apply distributive property to left side.
4 - 3x + 3y = -8x + 2
Add 8x to both sides.
4 + 5x + 3y = 2
Subtract 4 from both sides.
5x + 3y = -2
<h3><u>The correct answer is C.</u></h3>
