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jeka57 [31]
3 years ago
10

The sum of 3 consecutive odd #s is 51 what are the 3#s?

Mathematics
2 answers:
kari74 [83]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: 15, 17, 19

Step-by-step explanation:

RideAnS [48]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

let x, x+2, x +4 are the 3 consecutive ODD numbers

so

x + x +2 +x +4 = 51

3x + 6 = 51

3x =51-6

3x = 45

x = 45/3

x = 15

x + 2 = 15 + 2 = 17

x + 4 = 15 + 4 = 19

Step-by-step explanation:

proof

15 + 17 + 19 =51

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Gloria's pontoon boat holds 24 gallons of gas.
Darya [45]

Answer:

ok so if the girl added 13 gallons of gas 11 gallons were already there, if 14 gallons then 10 gallons were there, if 13,4 then 10,6 gallons were already there

7 0
3 years ago
Given:
diamong [38]

Answer:

10-5\sqrt{2}

Step-by-step explanation:

As per the attached figure, right angled \triangle MDL has an inscribed circle whose center is I.

We have joined the incenter I to the vertices of the \triangle MDL.

Sides MD and DL are equal because we are given that \angle M = \angle L = 45 ^\circ.

Formula for <em>area</em> of a \triangle = \dfrac{1}{2} \times base \times height

As per the figure attached, we are given that side <em>a = 10.</em>

Using pythagoras theorem, we can easily calculate that side ML = 10\sqrt{2}

Points P,Q and R are at 90 ^\circ on the sides ML, MD and DL respectively so IQ, IR and IP are heights of  \triangleMIL, \triangleMID and \triangleDIL.

Also,

\text {Area of } \triangle MDL = \text {Area of } \triangle MIL +\text {Area of } \triangle MID+ \text {Area of } \triangle DIL

\dfrac{1}{2} \times 10 \times 10 = \dfrac{1}{2} \times r \times 10 + \dfrac{1}{2} \times r \times 10 + \dfrac{1}{2} \times r \times 10\sqrt2\\\Rightarrow r = \dfrac {10}{2+\sqrt2} \\\Rightarrow r = \dfrac{5\sqrt2}{\sqrt2+1}\\\text{Multiplying and divinding by }(\sqrt2 +1)\\\Rightarrow r = 10-5\sqrt2

So, radius of circle = 10-5\sqrt2

8 0
3 years ago
Find the arc-length parametrization of the curve that is the intersection of the elliptic cylinder x 2 + y 2/2 = 1 and the plane
storchak [24]

Answer:

f(\theta) = (cos(\frac{\theta}{\sqrt2}), \sqrt2 sin(\frac{\theta}{\sqrt2}), cos(\frac{\theta}{\sqrt2})-2)

0 ≤ Ф ≤ 4π.

Step-by-step explanation:

since x²+y²/2 = 1, then x²+s² = 1, with s = (y/√2)². Hence, (x,s) = (cos(Ф),sin(Ф)) and (x,y,z) = (cos(Ф),√2 sin(Ф), cos(Ф)-2). This expression evaluated in zero gives as result (1,0,-1). The derivate of this function is (-sin(Ф),√2 cos(Ф), -sen(Ф))

the norm of the derivate is √(sin²(Ф) + 2cos²(Ф)+sin²(Ф)) = √2. In order to make the norm equal to 1, i will divide Ф by √2, so that a √2 is dividing each term after derivating.

We take

f(\theta) = (cos(\frac{\theta}{\sqrt2}), \sqrt2 sin(\frac{\theta}{\sqrt2}), cos(\frac{\theta}{\sqrt2})-2)

Note that

  • f(0) = (1,0,-1)
  • f'(\theta) = (\frac{sin(\frac{\theta}{\sqrt2})}{\sqrt2}, cos(\frac{\theta}{\sqrt2})}, \frac{sin(\frac{\theta}{\sqrt2})}{\sqrt2})

Whose square norm is 1/2cos²(Ф/2)+sen²(Ф/2)+1/2cos²(Ф/2) = 1. This is te parametrization that we wanted.

The values from Ф range between 0 an 4π, because the argument of the sin and cos is Ф/2, not Ф, Ф/2 should range between 0 and 2π.

6 0
3 years ago
Find the missing side lengths help please?
Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Historically 80% of the monitors made by your company will pass your stringent quality control checks. 40 monitors have just com
madam [21]

Answer:

a) 10.75% probability that exactly 30 of them will pass the quality control checks.

b) Expected value is 32

Variance is 6.4

Step-by-step explanation:

For each monitor, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they will pass the quality checks, or they will not pass these checks. The probability of a monitor passing these checks is independent of other monitors. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

E(X) = np

The variance of the binomial distribution is:

V(X) = np(1-p)

80% of the monitors made by your company will pass your stringent quality control checks.

This means that p = 0.8

40 monitors have just come off the assembly line.

This means that n = 40

a) What is the probability that exactly 30 of them will pass the quality control checks?

This is P(X = 30). So

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 30) = C_{40,30}.(0.8)^{30}.(0.2)^{10} = 0.1075

10.75% probability that exactly 30 of them will pass the quality control checks.

b) What are the expected value and variance of the number of these monitors that will pass the quality control checks?

E(X) = np = 40*0.8 = 32

Expected value is 32

V(X) = np(1-p) = 40*0.8*0.2 = 6.4

Variance is 6.4

4 0
3 years ago
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