Answer:
PV= $2,749,494
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow= $200,000
Number of periods= 25
Interest rate= 5.25%
<u>First, we need to calculate the future value using the following formula:</u>
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual cash flow
FV= {200,000* [(1.0525^25) - 1]} / 0.0525
FV= $9,881,102.14
<u>Now, the present value:</u>
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 9,881,102.14 / (1.0525^25)
PV= $2,749,494
Answer:
$80 lost for not working
Explanation:
Opportunity cost refers to the sacrificed benefits as a result of preferring on a particular option over another. As people make choices, the forfeit one option in favor of another. Opportunity cost is the missed value of the next best alternative.
For John, he has a choice between working or going to the concert. He has two tickets worth $50. Working would mean her twice her regular income, which is $20 per hour. If he works for four hours, his total earning will be $80. If John chooses to go to the concert, he will miss the opportunity to earn $80. The opportunity cost will be the missed $80 that he would have received from working.
Answer:
The variable factory overhead controllable variance is $2,250 favorable.
Explanation:
variable factory overhead controllable variance
= standard variable cost - actual variable cost
= $5500-2.5*3 - $39000
= $2,250 favorable
Therefore, The variable factory overhead controllable variance is $2,250 favorable.
Answer:
The inventory TO is 3.6875
Explanation:

where:

Considering there is not sufficient information to calculate the begining inventory <u>we are going to work only with the ending inventory </u>so:

The inventory TO is 3.6875 This means the company sales their inventory almost 4 times per year.