I would say false because 'personal' is in the name. Your work doesn't really need to know the exact details (might depend on the business tho).
Answer:
Explanation:
D0 = $1.88
D1 = 1.88*1.25 = $2.35
D2 = 2.35*1.25 = $2.94
D3 = 2.94*1.25 = $3.67
PV of Dividends:
r = 12%
1/(1.12) = 0.89
PV of D1 = 2.35/0.89 = $2.64
PV of D2 = 2.94/0.797 = $3.69
PV of D3 = 3.67/0.71 = $5.17
Total PV = $11.5
Value after year 3:
(D3*Growth rate)/(Required rate - growth rate) = $3.67*1.06/(0.12-0.06) = $64.8
Pv of 64.8 is 64.8/(1.12)^3 = $46.3
So, the maximum price per share is 11.5+46.3 = $57.8
Answer:
The solution to this question can be defined as follows:
Explanation:
In point a:
When consumer interest decreases, => consumers begin and save less and more, => MPC decreases; => the "IS" curve becomes flatter; => "IS" turns inside. Currently, 'AD' shows together all the goods and financial sector, => as the 'IS' curve adjusts inside the industry, => the 'AD' would also change to the left.
In point b:
Take into account the SR models of "IS-LM" and "AD-AS."
Therefore there is the case of a full job only at the beginning; => its optimum between "IS1" and "LM" in the "IS-LM" model; as well as the main equilibrium among "AD1" and "AS" in the "AD-AS" model "E1'," => the original equilibrium among "Y=Yf," "r=r1" and "P=P1." That now the consumer is reducing the confidence, => the 'IS' curve becomes shifting IMEI 'IS2,' => provided the 'LM' curve, that new balance is 'E2.' That's why the price in the SR is calculated, the AS will change =>, however, the AD also will shift the "AD2" side and "E2'" will become the equilibrium point in the "AD-AS" system, "r=r2 <r1" and "P=P1" throughout the new "Y=Y2 <Yf" balance.
Please find the graph file in the attachment.
The answer is b-savings back