Answer:
The scale factor is 0.5
Step-by-step explanation:
Divide.
2/1=2
4/2=2
4/2=2
8/4=2
2/1=2
5/1.25=2
Now then, since this is a shrinking factor, divide 1 by the common outcome from the last section (2) to get 0.5
the more years the money stays invested, the more interest it earns, so clearly, if the compounding cycle is the same for both options, and the rate of 7% is the same as well for both, then the one with more years will give more interest..
so depends on what "best" means in this context, but if it's more interest earned, 3 years gives more interest than 2 years of course.
857 x 132= 113,124
work is showed in the image
Answer:
i believe it would be -3
Step-by-step explanation:
9 + -12 = -3
Ok, so the discount is given in a percentage, in this case 10%. The sale price is going to reflect 10% of the original price minus the discount, so...
Sale $ = original$ - original $ x .10
If we use some algebra, we can reorganize the equation to solve for the original price...
Sale $ = original$ - original $ x .10
Sale $ = original$ (1 - .10)
Sale $ = original$ x .90
original$ = sale$/.90
So now we can plug in our values
original price = 50/.90
original price = 55.55555 = $55.55 to the nearest nickel
