Answer:
They should operate Mine 1 for 1 hour and Mine 2 for 3 hours to meet the contractual obligations and minimize cost.
Explanation:
The formulation of the linear programming is:
Objective function:
Restrictions:
- High-grade ore: 
- Medium-grade ore: 
- Low-grade ore: 
- No negative hours: 
We start graphing the restrictions in a M1-M2 plane.
In the figure attached, we have the feasible region, where all the restrictions are validated, and the four points of intersection of 2 restrictions.
In one of this four points lies the minimum cost.
Graphically, we can graph the cost function over this feasible region, with different cost levels. When the line cost intersects one of the four points with the lowest level of cost, this is the optimum combination.
(NOTE: it is best to start with a low guessing of the cost and going up until it reaches one point in the feasible region).
The solution is for the point (M1=1, M2=3), with a cost of C=$680.
The cost function graph is attached.
Answer:
Capability ratio = 1.04166
Explanation:
Given:
Length of a shoe (not deviate) = 1 mm
Standard deviation of this length = 0.32 mm
Number of standard deviations = 3
Find:
Capability ratio = ?
Computation:
Capability ratio = [Length of a shoe (not deviate) / Standard deviation of this length] / Number of standard deviations
Capability ratio = [1 / 0.32] / 3
Capability ratio = 3.125 / 3
Capability ratio = 1.04166
Capability ratio is greater than 1, therefore process is capable.
Answer:
A balance sheet for Weismuller publishing for December 31 2021 was prepared and recorded in the explanation section below
Explanation:
Solution
COMPANY: WEISMULLER PUBLISHING Balance Sheet At December 31 2021 Assets
Current assets:
Cash and cash equivalents ($91,000 + $43000) $134000
Short term investments ($166,000 - $43000) $123000
The net accounts receivable ($186,000 =$29,000) $175,000
Inventory $298,000
Prepaid expense [174,000-(14600/2)] $101,000
The total current assets $813,000
Note: Kindly find an attached copy of the [art of the complete solution to this question below
Answer:
PV= $45,489.44
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Discount rate= 10%
Cash flow= $12,000
Number of years= 5
First, we need to calculate future value. We will use the following formula:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual cash flow
FV= {12,000*[(1.1^5) - 1]} / 0.1
FV= $73,261.2
Now, the present value:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 73,261.2/1.1^5
PV= $45,489.44
