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3 years ago

I cant figure nothing this out help me pleaseee

Mathematics

1 answer:

Arturiano [62]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Well in set A, all of the sides are the same length but they are different shapes.

In set B, all of the angles are the same, they are just differnet shapes.

Hope this helps! :)

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Need help pleaseI was bad at math in school so lwant to learn

aleksklad [387]

The probability of an event is expressed as

$Pr(\text{event) =}\frac{Total\text{ number of favourable/desired outcome}}{Tota\text{l number of possible outcome}}$

Given:

$\begin{gathered} \text{Red}\Rightarrow2 \\ \text{Green}\Rightarrow3 \\ \text{Blue}\Rightarrow2 \\ \Rightarrow Total\text{ number of balls = 2+3+2=7 balls} \end{gathered}$

The probability of drwing two blue balls one after the other is expressed as

$Pr(\text{blue)}\times Pr(blue)$

For the first draw:

$\begin{gathered} Pr(\text{blue) = }\frac{number\text{ of blue balls}}{total\text{ number of balls}} \\ =\frac{2}{7} \end{gathered}$

For the second draw, we have only 1 blue ball left out of a total of 6 balls (since a blue ball with drawn earlier).

Thus,

$\begin{gathered} Pr(\text{blue)}=\frac{number\text{ of blue balls left}}{total\text{ number of balls left}} \\ =\frac{1}{6} \end{gathered}$

The probability of drawing two blue balls one after the other is evaluted as

$\begin{gathered} \frac{1}{6}\times\frac{2}{7} \\ =\frac{1}{21} \end{gathered}$

The probablity that none of the balls drawn is blue is evaluted as

$\begin{gathered} 1-\frac{1}{21} \\ =\frac{20}{21} \end{gathered}$

Hence, the probablity that none of the balls drawn is blue is evaluted as

$\frac{20}{21}$

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