Answer: After 6 hour for the first question
Step-by-step explanation: Cause ∣x+
1−x
2
∣=
2
(2x
2
−1)\Leftright∣cos\alp+sin\alp∣=
2
(2cos
2
\alp−1)
∣
N
2
c
o
s
(
\alp
−
π
4
)
∣
=
N
2
c
o
s
(
2
\alp
)
\Right
\alp
∈
[
0
;
π
4
]
∪
[
3
π
4
;
π
]
∣N
2
cos(\alp−
4
π
)∣=N
2
cos(2\alp)\Right\alp∈[0;
4
π
]∪[
4
3π
;π]
1)
\alp
∈
[
0
;
π
4
]
\alp∈[0;
4
π
]
c
o
s
(
\alp
−
π
4
)
=
c
o
s
(
2
\alp
)
…
cos(\alp−
4
π
)=cos(2\alp)…
2.
\alp
∈
[
3
π
4
;
π
]
\alp∈[
4
3π
;π]
−
c
o
s
(
\alp
−
π
4
)
=
c
o
s
(
2
\alp
)
…
−cos(\alp−
4
π
)=cos(2\alp)…
It is 31.................
Answer:
one in a million chance
Step-by-step explanation:
he combination can be 000000 or 999999, or anything in between. Since the odds of getting each digit is 1/10, you multiply 1/10 by itself 6 times. There's literally a one in a million chance of guessing the PIN correctly.
Answer:
they are both straight
Step-by-step explanation:
