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OleMash [197]
3 years ago
12

Probability. CORRECT answer gets brainliest.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Dima020 [189]3 years ago
3 0

The probability of spinning on yellow would be 1/3 because this is broken into 3 pieces and that would be the probability of something that has been broken into 3 pieces, and 1/3 in decimal form would be 0.33.

The probability of spinning a blue would be 1/2 because the blue is broken into 1/2 of the spinner, therefore the probability of spinning a blue would be 1/2, and 1/2 in decimal form would be 0.5.

Therefore your answers are,

Blue=0.5

Yellow=0.33

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7-4[3-(4y-5)] plz help me
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Let's simplify step-by-step. <span>7−<span>4<span>(<span>3−<span>(<span><span>4y</span>−5</span>)</span></span>)</span></span></span>

<span><span><span /></span></span>Distribute:<span> =<span><span><span>7+<span><span>(<span>−4</span>)</span><span>(3)</span></span></span>+<span><span>(<span>−4</span>)</span><span>(<span>−<span>4y</span></span>)</span></span></span>+<span><span>(<span>−4</span>)</span><span>(5)</span></span></span></span><span>=<span><span><span><span><span>7+</span>−12</span>+<span>16y</span></span>+</span>−20</span></span>

<span><span /></span>Combine Like Terms: <span>=<span><span><span>7+<span>−12</span></span>+<span>16y</span></span>+<span>−20</span></span></span><span>=<span><span>(<span>16y</span>)</span>+<span>(<span><span>7+<span>−12</span></span>+<span>−20</span></span>)</span></span></span><span>=<span><span>16y</span>+<span>−25</span></span></span>

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<span><span><span /></span></span>Answer: <span>=<span><span>16y</span>−<span>25</span></span></span>

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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xz_007 [3.2K]

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
Suppose the claim size of an auto collision insurance, X, is uniformly distributed on the interval $1,000 to $10,000. What is th
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35.35%

Step-by-step explanation:

If there were no deductibles, the expected claim payment would be:

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If the collision insurance claim is under $2,000, then the insurer would not pay anything, but if X > $2,000, then the insurer would pay X - $2,000. The new expected value is:

E_2(X)=\frac{2,000-1,000}{10,000-1,000} *0+\frac{10,000-2,000}{10,000-1,000}*\frac{(2,000-2,000)+(10,000-2,000)}{2} \\E_2(X)=\frac{8}{9}*\frac{0+8,000}{2}\\ E_2(X)=\$3,555.56

The percentage reduction on the claim payment is:

P=(1-\frac{E_2(X)}{E(X)})*100 \\P=(1-\frac{3,555.56}{5,500})*100\\P=35.35\%

There was a 35.35% reduction.

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8. 1 is the answer.

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