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slavikrds [6]
3 years ago
7

Geneva Company manufactures dolls that are sold to various customers. The company works at full capacity for half the year to me

et peak demand, and operates at 80% capacity for the other half of the year. The following information is provided: Units produced and sold 600,000 units Selling price $ 35 / unit Variable manufacturing costs $ 20 / unit Fixed manufacturing costs $ 1,200,000 / yr. Variable selling and administrative costs $ 6 / unit Fixed selling and administrative costs $ 950,000 / yr. Geneva receives a purchase order to make 5,000 dolls as a one-time event. The good news is that this order is during a period when Geneva does have excess capacity. What is the lowest selling price Geneva should accept for this purchase order?

Business
2 answers:
SpyIntel [72]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: <u><em>So, the minimum selling price will be $26.</em></u>

Explanation:

The fixed cost are incurred regardless of the production volume, they're tangential to decision making.

Now,  

Minimum selling price that should be accepted for the product is given as follow:

Variable manufacturing cost = $20

Variable selling and admin  = $6

Total cost incurred = Variable manufacturing cost + Variable selling and admin = $26.

<u><em>So, the minimum selling price will be $26.</em></u>

erik [133]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The answer is $26

Explanation:

Please see attachment.

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Andreyy89

Answer:

Do =  $2.00

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D2= Do(1+g)2 = $2(1+0.2)2 = $2.88

D3= Do(1+g)3 = $2(1+0.2)3 = $3.456

D4= Do(1+g)4 = $2(1+0.2)4 = $4.1472

D5= Do(1+g)5 = $2(1+0.2)5 = $4.97664

PHASE 1

V1 = D1/1+ke + D2/(1+ke)2 + D3/(1+ke)3 +D4/(1+ke)4 + D5/(1+ke)5

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V1 = $11.3824

PHASE 2

V2 = DN(1+g)/ (Ke-g )(1+k e)n                                                                                                                                                                                                                                      

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Explanation: This is a typical question on valuation of shares with two growth rate regimes. In the first phase, the value of the share would be obtained by capitalizing the dividend for each year by the cost of equity of the company. The dividend for year 1 to year 5 was obtained by subjecting the current dividend paid(Do) to growth rate. The growth rate In the first regime was 20%.

In the second phase, the value of shares would be calculated by taking cognizance of the second growth rate of 2%. In this phase, the last dividend paid in year 5 would be discounted at the appropriate discount rate after it has been adjusted for growth.

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kirill [66]
The choices can be found elsewhere and as follows:

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erma4kov [3.2K]

<em>Answer</em>:

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