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Ahat [919]
3 years ago
13

Casey wants to buy a gym membership. One gym has a $147 joining fee and costs $33 per month. Another gym has no joining fee and

costs $54 per month.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Daniel [21]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

one gym-    33x+147    another gym-   54x

Step-by-step explanation:

the fee is what you always add at the end. the you put the "x" after what happens constantly key words- per month, each

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Could somebody help me im slow sorry
Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

I'd say multiply the numerators then the denominators and at the end simplify at least thats how I multiply fractions :)

8 0
3 years ago
You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
3 years ago
What is 5/8 times 24 simplest
9966 [12]
5      24
-        -
8       1

Simplify 24 and 8. (8 goes into 24 six times.)

5      6
-       -
1      1
   
   or
5   x  6  =  30


6 0
3 years ago
I reallly need help quick with this
Rasek [7]

you can do that on here


8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Write an equation of the line that has a slope of 5 and goes through the point (3,3)
professor190 [17]

Answer:

y=5x-12

Step-by-step explanation:

The general equation of a line is <em>y=mx+b</em>.

The equation you currently have is <em>y=5x+b</em>.

Plug in the point (3,3) which will get you <em>3=5(3)+b</em>.

Solve the equation by solving what the y-intercept (b) is to create the new final equation.

3=5(3)+b

3=15+b

b=3-15

b=-12

y=5x-12

8 0
3 years ago
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