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pychu [463]
3 years ago
13

A firm's WACC can be correctly used to discount the expected cash flows of a new project when that project will: Multiple Choice

be financed solely with new debt and internal equity. have the same level of risk as the firm's current operations. be managed by the firm's current managers. be financed solely with internal equity. be financed based on the firm's current debt-equity ratio.
Business
1 answer:
Serggg [28]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

...when that project will have the same level of risk as the firm's current operations

Explanation:

Weighted average cost of capital (WACC) is the company's cost of capital based on its proportion of equity and debt used in its capital structure. It can be used as the discount rate for calculating the present value of future expected cashflows of a project if the project is determined to be of similar risk to the company's operations; meaning that the estimated beta of the project is the same as the beta of the firm.

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Assume that marginal revenue equals rising marginal cost at 100 units of output.
Digiron [165]

Answer:

b) -$700.

Explanation:

The economic profit or loss will be:

economic result = revenue - total cost

<u>Where:</u>

fixed cost + variable cost = total cost

400 + 600 = 1,000

revenue = units x selling price per unit

100 units x $3 = $300

economic result = revenue - total cost = 300 - 1,000 = -700

The company is on the optimal level, marginal revenue = marginal cost at 100 units of output.

But, it is not selling at the correct price. It should sale at a higher price.

5 0
3 years ago
Ted, a project manager, wants to invest in a project with an initial cost of $58,500 and cash flows of $32,400 and $38,500 in Ye
Art [367]

Answer:

The project will not be approved

Explanation:

Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after-tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested

IRR can be calculated with a financial calculator  

Cash flow in year 0 = $-58,500

Cash flow in year 1 = $32,400

Cash flow in year 2 = $38,500

IRR = 13,41%

profitability index = 1 + (NPV / Initial investment)  

Net present value is the present value of after-tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.  

NPV can be calculated using a financial calculator  

Cash flow in year 0 = $-58,500

Cash flow in year 1 = $32,400

Cash flow in year 2 = $38,500

I = 10%

NPV = $2,772.72

PI = 1 + $2,772.72 / $58,500 = 1.04

The project will not be approved because the PI is less than the amount of return the boss wants even though the IRR is less than the discount rate

To find the NPV using a financial calculator:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. after inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.  

3. Press compute  

To find the IRR using a financial calculator:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the IRR button and then press the compute button.  

4 0
3 years ago
A store that advertises a buy-one-get-one-free sale is
zepelin [54]

Answer:

sales promotions

Explanation:

Sales promotions are the steps taken to increase the purchase of the products by adding an incentive to the customers. Buy-one-get-one-free is one of the sales promotions. Here two products are sold in the cost of one. The customer is provided with the benefit of getting two products by giving the amount of one. It is the promotions in which quantity plays a crucial role.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Samuel slips on an icy spot in front of an apartment and is hospitalized for three weeks. The owner of the apartment pays Samuel
andrey2020 [161]

Answer:

B) $1,800.

Explanation:

$14,000 in medical expenses are not part of Samuel's gross income.

$7,000 in disability payments are not included in Samuel's gross income because he paid the premiums.

$4,000 in pain and suffering compensation are not part of your gross income.

The only payments that are part of Samuel's gross income and therefore are taxed, are his regular monthly salary payments = $1,800. If Samuel's disability insurance premium had been paid by his employer, then the $7,000 would have been taxable.

8 0
3 years ago
Consider the actions of the Fed in response to the Great Recession. Which of the following scenarios should the Fed be worried a
Naily [24]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": Increasing the money supply could decrease aggregate demand.

Explanation:

The Aggregate Demand is a macroeconomic term describing the total demand in an economy for all goods and services at any given price level in a given period. As such, aggregate demand is the demand for the gross domestic product of a country. The relationship between the price level and the goods and services provided is inversely proportional which implies that the price level rises, the goods and services will have less demand and vice versa.  

In that case, if the money supply increases so will the price levels but the goods and services provided will see a dropdown so will the aggregate demand.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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