Answer:
The answer is C.
Explanation:
Credit sales is $6,000
Bad debt is 3% of net credit sales which is $180($6,000 x3%)
Creating allowance for doubtful debt entry is one of the prudent method and it tells us that some customers won't pay part of what they are owing. And it is also a contra account that offset bad debt.
According to the accounting rule, debit increases asset and expenses and vice-versa while credit decreases liability, equity, income and vice versa.
So we have have:
Dr Bad debt expense $180
Cr Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $180
Answer:
3%
Explanation:
Given the following :
Purchased merchandise = $43,338
Number of payments required = 6
Payment per period = $8,000
PV factor (PVIFA) = (purchased merchandise / payment per period)
PVIFA = (43,338 / 8000) = 5.41725
Using the PVIFA table, we locate the interest rate on PVIFA factor of 5.41725 for a period of 6 years.
For PVIFA of 5.4172, the interest rate is 3%
Hence the implicit Interest t rate = 3%
PVIFA = [1 - (1+r)^-n] ÷ r
The complete question has been added with an image for better understanding of the concept. The beneficiaries of the inflation and interest rates will be,
- When inflation is 1 percent, Diane will benefit more than Jack;
- When inflation is 0 percent; Diane will benefit more than Jack;
- When inflation is 4 percent; Jack will benefit more than Diane;
- When inflation is -2 percent; Diane will benefit more than Jack.
<h3>What is inflation?</h3>
A given increase in rates or prices of any commodity, including monies, over a particular financial period is known as inflation.
The rates and beneficiaries due to the unexpected change in inflation for the above situation is given attached in the image in the form of a table.
Hence, the significance of inflation is as mentioned.
Learn more about inflation here:
brainly.com/question/15692461
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Answer:
Annual deposit= $7,930.11
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
FV= $98,000
n= 9 years
i= 0.0775
<u>To calculate the annual deposit, we need to use the following formula:</u>
<u></u>
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual deposit
Isolating A:
A= (FV*i)/{[(1+i)^n]-1}
A= (98,000*0.0775) / [(1.0775^9) - 1]
A= $7,930.11
Answer:
It will increase expense, thereby reducing the profit mentioned in the income statement and decrease the current asset (debtor) recorded in the balance sheet.
Explanation:
Bad Debt is an expense that is recorded when it is expected that the customer, who owes a debt to the business, might default in clearing their dues.
As such when the bad debt amount is increased it will result in a rise in expense and therefore the profit, as stated in the profit and loss (income statement) of the sole trader would decrease.
Moreover, it will also decrease the value of trade receivables (current assets) mentioned in the balance sheet. The following entry would be recorded:
Bad Debts (Dr) xxxxx
Trade Receivables (Cr) xxxxxx
Hence, the expenses will increase while the current asset will decrease.
