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Leno4ka [110]
3 years ago
6

Loan A has the same original principal, interest rate, and payment amount as Loan B. However, Loan A is structured as an annuity

due, while Loan B is structured as an ordinary annuity. The present value of Loan A will be
Business
1 answer:
7nadin3 [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Earlier than Loan B

Explanation:

In an annuity due, an occurring payment is made at the beginning of consecutive period.  (such as  rent  that is paid at the beginning of each months)

In ordinary annuity, an occurring payment is made at the the end of the consecutive period. (such as rent that is paid at the end of the year)

Since the payment of annuity due always received earlier by the creditor than ordinary annuity, the present value of loan A will always change Earlier than Loan B.

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A machine costing $180,000 was purchased May 1. The machine should be obsolete after four years and, therefore, no longer useful
Anvisha [2.4K]

Answer:

Straight line depreciation expense

Year 1 = $27,500

Year 2, 3 ,4 = $41,250

Double declining method

Year 1: $60,000

Year 2: $60,000

Year 3: $30,000

Year 4: $15,000

Explanation:

Straight line depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

( $180,000 - $15,000) / 4 = $41,250

Depreciation expense every year would be 41250 expect in year 1 when the machine was used for only 8 months.

To determine the deprecation expense in the 1st year, determine the monthly deprecation expense.

41250 / 12 = 3,437.50

Depreciation for 1 st year = 3,437.50 x 8 = $27,500

Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset

Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life)

2 / 4 = 0.5

Depreciation expense in year one = 0.5 x $180,000 = $90,000

The same procedure for determining depreciation expense in year 1 under straight line depreciation would also be used here.

90,000 / 12 = $7,500

$7,500 x 8 = $60,000

Book value at the beginning of year 2 = $180,000 - $60,000 = $120,000

Depreciation expense in year 2 = 0.5 x $120,000 = $60,000

Book value at the beginning of year 3 = $120,000 - $60,000 = $60,000

Depreciation expense in year 3 = 0.5 x $60,000 = $30,000

Book value at the beginning of year 4 =$60,000 - $30,000 = $30,000

Depreciation expense in year 4 = 0.5 x $30,000 = $15,000

I hope my answer helps you

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose that a coal factory emits pollution into the air and that a nearby neighborhood is harmed by this pollution. It would co
DanielleElmas [232]

Answer: The right answer are: a)the neighborhood will negociate to get the pollution cleaned up. b)the neighborhood will required the coal factory to clean up the pollution

6 0
3 years ago
At December 31, Gill Co. reported accounts receivable of $268,000 and an allowance for uncollectible accounts of $750 (credit) b
Andrei [34K]

Answer:

: $4,610

Explanation:

The allowance for uncollectible accounts should be 2% of accounts receivable. So first we wil find out the 2% of $268,000.

($268,000 x 2%) = $5,360

Then we will subtract the $750 allowance for uncollectible accounts before any adjustments.

$5,360 - $750 = $4,610

The amount of the adjusting entry for uncollectible accounts would be: $4,610.

4 0
3 years ago
Why is it important to use the right strategies to beat competition?:​
Cloud [144]

Answer:

Therefore, competitive strategy is essential for the survival of the product in the market. Having a new competitive strategy to beat rival companies or their products by renaming or redesigning their products will help the company to be more profitable and create an image new on the market.

3 0
3 years ago
A service contract for a video projection system costs $195 a year. you expect to use the system for four years. instead of buyi
aleksklad [387]

Answer:

The future value of an annuity (FVA) is $828.06

Explanation:

The future value of an annuity (FVA) is the value of payments at a specific date in the future based on the payments being recurring and assuming a discount rate. The future value of an annuity (FVA) is based on regular cash flow. The higher the discount rate, the greater the annuity's future value.

FVA= P * \frac{(1+r)^n-1}{r}

Where:

FVA is The future value of an annuity (FVA)

P is payment per period

n is the number of period

r is the discount rate

Given that:

P = $195

r = 4% = 0.04

n = 4 years

FVA= P * \frac{(1+r)^n-1}{r}

substituting values

FVA= 195 * \frac{(1+0.04)^4-1}{0.04}=195*4.246=828.06\\FVA=824.06

The future value of an annuity (FVA) is $828.06

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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