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grigory [225]
3 years ago
8

On January 1, year 1, London Corp. purchases equipment for $400,000. The equipment has a 5-year service life and a $50,000 resid

ual value. London uses the double-declining-balance method of depreciation. What is the book value at the end of year 1?
Business
1 answer:
anyanavicka [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$240,000

Explanation:

To calculate the depreciation value using the double declining balance method we should only consider the purchase cost of the equipment and not the salvage value.

$400,000 / 5 years = $80,000 per year

Since we use the double declining balance method the depreciation for year 1 will be $80,000 x 2 = $160,000

So the book value at the end of year 1 will be $240,000 (= $400,000 - $160,000).

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On January 4, David Company acquired all of the net assets (assets and liabilities) of William Company for $ 145,000 cash. The t
galben [10]

Assets are what a business owns and liabilities are what an enterprise owes. both are indexed on a business enterprise's stability sheet,

Calculation of goodwill gain and bargain purchase:-

Particulars                                                                            Amount

Assets :                                                                              

         cash                                                                            $ 23,000                            

       property & equipment                                                   85,000

 internally developed patent                                                3,000

     Total assets                                                                     $ 111,00

Less: Liabilities                                                                     ( 16000 )

Net assets of William co.                                                      $ 95,000

Purchase consideration paid                                               $ 145,000

goodwill [ purchase consideration-net assets ]                  $ 50,000

  Notes

The assets & Liabilities of the Acquiree are recorded at fair value in the books of the acquiree.

Internally developed parent, which is acquired is expected to be identifiable. Hence recognized in Books. recorded at is books of Acquiror. an economic assertion that suggests an enterprise's economic fitness. belongings minus liabilities equals fairness or a proprietor's net worth. present-day and long-term liabilities are going to be the maximum not unusual ones that you see for your enterprise.

Learn more about Liabilities here:-brainly.com/question/12240150

#SPJ4

6 0
2 years ago
g Unearned revenues are classified as: Group of answer choices Assets. Liabilities. Revenues. Stockholders' equity.
NemiM [27]

Answer:

Liabilities

Explanation:

Unearned revenues are written as liabilities in the balance sheet of a firm. They are regarded as liabilities because the revenue is still unearned. An example is advance rent payment.

It is a prepayment for a good or service that has not been rendered to the customer yet by the provider. The provider or seller now has a liability equal to the revenue they have received till they provide that service for which they were paid

7 0
3 years ago
Naomi is planning to get a job after graduating from college. Which explains why she should establish a positive credit history?
AleksandrR [38]

Answer:

A). She will appear more responsible to future employers.

<u>Multiple choices</u>

A). She will appear more responsible to future employers.

B). She will be able to do the job better.

c). She will be able to complete her job search application better.

D). She will get an increase in the interest rate on her student loans.

Explanation:

A positive credit score is a result of responsible use of income against the debts incurred. It shows an individual is good at managing their personal finances. A negative credit score paints a bad picture of an individual. It communicates a lack of self-discipline in managing debts.

A positive credit score will portray Naomi as responsible in using her finances. Her employers will view her as good at managing money.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Supporters of rent control say that it _____ the price of renting an apartment.
antoniya [11.8K]
A: raises

B: lowers

c: does not change

I would put B as the answer because the government helps control the price so everyone can rent an apartment. 
3 0
3 years ago
Both Bond Bill and Bond Ted have 10.4 percent coupons, make semiannual payments, and are priced at par value. Bond Bill has 5 ye
AURORKA [14]

Answer:

Ans,

a) If interest rates suddenly rise by 3 percent, Bill´s bond would drop by -20.02%  and Ted´s bond would go down by -36.07%

.

b) If rates were to suddenly fall by 3 percent, Bill´s bond would rise by 26.79%

and Ted´s bond would rise too by 86.47%

.

Explanation:

Hi, first let´s go ahead and establish the stable scenario, for that we are going to use the information of the problem but we need to add the discount rate of the bond or yield, which is the missing information. All this so this concept can be explained in a better way, so for this example we´ll say that the yield of both bonds is 10% compounded semi-annually, the same units as the coupon. Now we have to use the following formula.

Price=\frac{Coupon((1+Yield)^{n}-1) }{Yield(1+Yield)^{n} } +\frac{FaceValue}{(1+Yield)^{n} }

Where:

Coupon = (%Coupon/2)*FaceValue= (0.104/2)*1,000=52

Yield = we are going to assume 10% annual, that is 5% semi-annual

n = Payment periods (For Bill n=5*2=10, for Ted, n=22*2=44)

So, let´s see what is the price of each bond if the yield was 10% annual compounded semi-annually.

Price(Bill)=\frac{52((1+0.05)^{10}-1) }{0.05(1+0.05)^{10} } +\frac{1,000}{(1+0.05)^{10} } =1,015.44

In Ted´s case, that is:

Price(Ted)=\frac{52((1+0.05)^{44}-1) }{0.05(1+0.05)^{44} } +\frac{1,000}{(1+0.05)^{44} } = 1,035.33

Now, if the interest rate (Yield) suddenly goes up by 3%, this is what happens to Bill´s Bond

Price(Bill)=\frac{52((1+0.08)^{10}-1) }{0.08(1+0.08)^{10} } +\frac{1,000}{(1+0.08)^{10} } = 812.12

If yield goes down by 3%, this is the new price of Bill´s bond.

Price(Bill)=\frac{52((1+0.02)^{10}-1) }{0.02(1+0.02)^{10} } +\frac{1,000}{(1+0.02)^{10} } =  1,287.44

Now, in the case of Ted, this is what happens to the price if the yield goes up.

Price(Ted)=\frac{52((1+0.08)^{44}-1) }{0.08(1+0.08)^{44} } +\frac{1,000}{(1+0.08)^{44} } =  661.84

If it goes down by 3%, this would be the price for Ted´s bond.

Price(Ted)=\frac{52((1+0.02)^{44}-1) }{0.02(1+0.02)^{44} } +\frac{1,000}{(1+0.02)^{44} } =   1,930.56

Now, in percentage, what we need to use is the following formula.

Change=\frac{(VariationValue-BaseValue)}{BaseValue} x100

For example, in the case of Bill´s bond, which yield went up by 3%, this is what we should do.

Change=\frac{(812.12-1,015.44)}{1,015.44} x100=-20.02Percent

So, the price variation is -20.02% if the yield rises by 3%.

This are the results of the prices and calculations for you to answer this question. Best of luck.

                         Bill        Ted                       % (Bill)       %(Ted)

Base Price     $1,015.44    $1,035.33    

(+) 3% Yield  $812.12          $661.84      -20.02%          -36.07%

(-) 3% Yield  $1,287.44     $1,930.56       26.79%            86.47%

5 0
3 years ago
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