Answer:
Instructions are listed below.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
A machine costing $251,800 was purchased May 1. The machine should be obsolete after three years and, therefore, no longer useful to the company. The estimated salvage value is $3,400.
A) Straight-line:
Annual depreciation= (original cost - salvage value)/estimated life (years)
Annual depreciation= (251,800 - 3,400)/3= $82,800
B) Double declining balance:
Annual depreciation= 2*[(original cost - residual value)/estimated life (years)]
Year 1= (248,400/3)*2= 165,600
Year 2= 55,200
Year 3= 18,400
Answer:
A. Liquidity management is a balancing act, managers try to find liquidity levels that are neither too high not too low.
Explanation:
Maintaining proper liquidity is an important financial objective of management. Proper liquidity management demands that an entity should be able to meet his short term financial obligation and making sure that liquid assets of the entity are not idle. In order to achieve this, the best way to go is to maintain a level that is neither too high and not too low. Not too high means the entity is not holding too much cash or liquid assets than it currently need to meet its short term financial obligation.
For example, not keeping too much cash in current account but investing them in interest-earning investment assets.
Not too low means the cash or liquid assets held by an entity should not less than the amount needed to meet its short term financial obligation. For example, making sure that the entity has enough cash or readily convertible liquid assets that can be used to pay vendors, rent, interest and meet other short term financial obligation.
Option B is false because keeping too much does not help to maximize short term earnings which is a feature of proper liquidity management. Option C is wrong because there is no guideline to support that deferring coupon payment won`t attract payment and this does not connote proper liquidity management.
Option D is obviously false and does not describe proper liquidity management.
Answer:
A. A captive brand
Explanation:
-A captive brand is when a brand is produced by another party and owned by the retailer but there is no evidence of this and it is only sold by it.
-A complementary brand is when a brand is marketed together with another one to encourage the purchase of both.
-A cooperative brand is when a brand shares a promotion with another one.
-An exclusive brand is a brand that is produced by the retailer and it is sold using its name.
-A generic brand is when a product doesn't have a brand name and it has a lower price than the ones from well-known brands.
According to this, the answer is that the type of private label brand that carries no evidence of a retailer s affiliation, is manufactured by a third party, and is sold exclusively at the retailer is a captive brand.
Based on the fact that ActioNOW and Becca entered into an oral contract where Becca agrees to work on a project for ActioNOW for eighteen months, the enforcers of this contract are d. none of the choices.
<h3>Who can enforce this contract?</h3>
This transaction between Becca and ActioNOW was an oral contract which means that it falls under the Statute of Frauds. However, for an oral contract to be enforceable under this Statute, the goods or services exchanged have to be less then $500 in value.
The services or goods also have to be less than 1 year in duration. Because Becca and ActioNow agreed for a contract of 18 months which is more than a year, this contract is not enforceable under the Statute of Frauds and so the government cannot enforce this contract.
Options include:
- a. ActioNOW.
- b. Becca.
- c. any third party, such as ActioNOW’s clients.
- d. none of the choices
Find out more on the Statute of Frauds at brainly.com/question/14854791
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Section 8 does not require you to pay them back
