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labwork [276]
3 years ago
8

What is 3/18 simplified

Mathematics
2 answers:
pentagon [3]3 years ago
8 0
1/6.
3/18 ÷3/3 = 1/6. Your answer is 1/6

trasher [3.6K]3 years ago
4 0
All you have to do is divide the numerator and the denominator by 3 and you get your answer which is 1/6
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The measure of BEC is .....<br>The measure of ABE is .....
Mila [183]
Does it tell you what X represents?
4 0
3 years ago
Angle 1 and Angle 2 are supplementary. Angle 1 is 20 degree less than nine times the size of angle 2.
nadya68 [22]

Answer:

∠1=160° and ∠2=20°

Step-by-step explanation:

Let ∠1 = x

∠2 = y

as these two angles are supplementary their sum is 180

that x+y=180   ----(A)

Also given that ∠1 is 20 degree less than nine times the size of ∠2.

Hence

x=9y-20

putting value of x in A and solving for y

9y-20+y=180

10y=180+20

10y=200

y=10

Putting this y in A

x+10=180

x=160

5 0
3 years ago
What is the surface area of this cuboid?<br> height: 5cm<br> length: 9cm<br> width: 4cm
bazaltina [42]

Answer:

180

Step-by-step explanation:

formulae=H×L×W so....5×9×4=180

4 0
2 years ago
a slitter assembly contains 48 blades five blades are selected at random and evaluated each day for sharpness if any dull blade
son4ous [18]

Answer:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps.

This is what it's called dependent event probability, with the added condition that at least 1 out of 5 blades picked is dull, because from your selection of 5, you only need one defective to decide on replacing all.

So if you look at this from another perspective, you have only one event that makes it so you don't change the blades: that 5 out 5 blades picked are sharp. You also know that the probability of changing the blades plus the probability of not changing them is equal to 100%, because that involves all the events possible.

P(at least 1 dull blade out of 5)+Probability(no dull blades out of 5)=1

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

But the event of picking one blade is dependent of the previous picking, meaning there is no chance of picking the same blade twice.

So you have 38/48 on getting a sharp one on your first pick, then 37/47 (since you remove 1 sharp from the possibilities, and 1 from the whole lot), and so on.

Also since are consecutive events, you need to multiply the events.

The probability that the assembly is replaced the first day is:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-(\frac{38}{48}* \frac{37}{47} *\frac{36}{46}*\frac{35}{45}*\frac{34}{44})

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-0.2931

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

5 0
3 years ago
Based on 2017 sales, the six top-selling compact cars are the Honda Civic, Toyota Corolla, Nissan Sentra, Hyundai Elantra, Chevr
fgiga [73]

Answer:

Pvalue = 0.020335

X² = 14.99

CONCLUSION: THERE IS DIFFERENCE IN MARKET SHARES

Step-by-step explanation:

H0 : there is no difference in market shares

H1: there is difference in market shares

Chisquare (X²) = (observed - Expected)²/ expected

Honda Civic - 0.20 * 400 = 80 : (98-80)^2 /80 = 4.05

Toyota Corolla - 0.17 * 400 = 68 : (72-68)²/68 = 0.235

Nissan Sentra - 0.12 * 400 = 48 : (54-48)²/48 = 0.75

Hyundai Elantra - 0.10 *400 = 40 : (44-40)²/40 = 0.4

Chevrolet Cruze - 0.10 * 400 = 40 : (42-40)²/40 = 0.1

Ford Focus - 0.08 * 400 = 32 : (25-32)²/32 = 1.531

Others - 0.23 * 400 = 92 : (65-92)²/92 = 7.924

X² = (4.05+0.235+0.75+0.4+0.1+1.531+7.924) = 14.99

The obtain the Pvalue ;

We use the Pvalue from Chisquare calculator :

Pvalue(14.99, 0.05, df= 6) = 0.020335

Decision region :

Reject H0 ; if Pvalue < α

THERE IS DIFFERENCE IN MARKET SHARES

Market share differences:

* 98/400 = 0.245,

0.245-0.20 = 0.045

* 72/400 = 0.18,

0.18 - 0.17 = 0.01

* 54/400 = 0.135,

0.135 - 0.12 = 0.015

* 44/400 = 0.11,

0.11 - 0.10 = 0.01

* 42/400 = 0.105

0.105 - 0.10 = 0.005

* 25/400 = 0.0625

0.0625-0.08 = -0.0175

* 65/400 = 0.1625

0.1625 - 0.23 = -0.0675

5 0
3 years ago
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