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ch4aika [34]
3 years ago
10

7) The capital asset pricing model: (a) Provides a risk return trade off in which risk is measured in terms of beta (b) Measures

risk as the correlation coefficient between a security and market rates of return (c) Provides a risk return trade off in which risk is measured in terms of yield to maturity (d) None of the above
Business
1 answer:
Anarel [89]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: Provides a risk return trade off in which risk is measured in terms of beta (A)

Explanation:

The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) describes the relationship that exist between systematic risk and the expected return for assets, particularly stocks. The Capital Asset Pricing Model is widely used in finance for pricing risky securities and also for generating expected returns for an asset given the cost of capital and the risk of those assets.

The Capital Asset Pricing Model Formula is:

Expected Return= Risk-Free Rate+Beta( Market Return – Risk Free Rate).

For example, if the risk free rate is 10%, the market return is 15%, and the stock's beta is 3, then the expected return on the stock would be 25%

= 10% + 3 (15% – 10%)

= 10% + 3(5%)

= 10% + 15%

= 25%

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Answer:

Attached image carries the solution to this problem.

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3 years ago
During the Great Recession, consumer sentiment in the United States declined, leading to a decrease in consumer spending. Which
Ipatiy [6.2K]
C. A decrease in the money supply

Nearly 700 banks failed in waning months of 1929 and more than 3,000 collapsed in 1930. Federal deposit insurance was as-yet unheard of, so when the banks failed, people lost all their money. Some people panicked, causing bank runs as people desperately withdrew their money, forcing more banks to close. By the end of the decade, more than 9,000 banks had failed. Surviving institutions, unsure of the economic situation and concerned for their own survival, became unwilling to lend money. This exacerbated the situation, leading to less and less spending.
6 0
4 years ago
​brown's, a local​ bakery, is worried about increased costs particularly energy. last​ year's records can provide a fairly good
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Answer:

Increase in the production of energy means that the energy was saved

Labor productivity also increased

Explanation:

Change in energy producton

Previous Year: (1,500x12)/3,000

=18,000/3,000

=6.0 loaves per unit

Current Year: (1500*12)/2,750

=18,000/2,750

=6.55 loaves per unit

The above calculation indicates a positive change in energy production. This means that there was some degree of energy saving.

Change in labor

Previous Year:  (1500x12)/350

=18,000/350

= 51.43 loaves/labor hour

This Year: (1500x12)/325

= 18,000/325

= 55.38 loaves/labor hour

This calculation also signifies an increase in labor productivity.

Change in Investment

Previous Year:  (1500x12)/15000

=18,000/15,000

= 1.2 loaves/$ investment

This Year : (1500x12)/18000

=18,000/18,000

= 1.0 loaves/$ investment

Investment is lowered which is a positive sign.

4 0
4 years ago
A unit volume objectives for pricing should be used judiciously because higher volume goals can sometimes result in Blank______.
marissa [1.9K]

A unit volume objective for pricing should be used judiciously because higher volume goals can sometimes result in higher pricing. This is further explained below.

<h3>What is the pricing?</h3>

Generally, set the price for the goods or services to be exchanged.

In conclusion, When setting prices, a unit volume aim should be utilized with caution since volume objectives that are more ambitious may often lead to higher prices.

Read more about pricing

brainly.com/question/19091385

#SPJ1

8 0
2 years ago
. A corporation creates a sinking fund in order to have $540, 000 to replace some machinery in 12 years. How much should be plac
lakkis [162]

Answer:

$10,371.04

Explanation:

The 540,000 is a future cashflow and you can use a financial calculator with the following inputs to find the recurring payment(PMT);

Future value; FV= $540,000

Duration of investment ; N = 12*4 = 48 quarters

Quarterly interest rate ; I/Y = 4.1%/12 = 0.342%

One time present cashflow ; PV = 0

Compute recurring payment ; CPT PMT = 10,371.036

Therefore, $10,371.04 at the end of each quarter.

5 0
4 years ago
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