Answer:
10
Step-by-step explanation:
Do you have a better picture?
Answer:
The sample 2 has a lowest value of SE corresponding to the least sample variability.
Step-by-step explanation:
As the value of the sample means and standard deviations are not given, as similar question is found online from which the values of data is follows
The data is as attached with the solution. From this data
Sample 1 has a mean of 34 and a SE of 5
Sample 2 has a mean of 30 and a SE of 2
Sample 3 has a mean of 26 and a SE of 3
Sample 4 has a mean of 38 and a SE of 5
As per the measure of the sample variability is linked with the value of SE or standard error. Which is lowest in the case of sample 2 .
So the sample 2 has a lowest value of SE corresponding to the least sample variability.
Hello there! Given that normal dice are numbered 1-6, individually rolling a 4 or a 5 would give a 1/6 probability. That converts to about 17% as a percentage because we can multiply 1 by 100 to get 100/6, then divide 100 by 6 to get 16.6666. When rounding, that gives approximately 17%. However, if we combined probabilities, we would find that rolling a 4 or a 5 collectively gives a 2/6 probability, which is approximately 33% as a decimal.
In terms of individual probabilities, you would be 17% likely to roll one of them. In terms of collectiveness, the likelihood of rolling a 4 or 5 would render 33% on each die. If you need additional help, let me know and I will gladly assist you.
Answer:
The third one
Step-by-step explanation: