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SashulF [63]
3 years ago
11

ASAP!! Please help me. I will not accept nonsense answers, but will mark as BRAINLIEST if you answer is correctly with solutions

.

Mathematics
1 answer:
AlexFokin [52]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

i am very sure that the answer is D which is domain does not change and the range changes.

Step-by-step explanation:

it is because always range value can varry more over when H(x) is equal to A and range is equal to B .

A=B

similarly

A= -B

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Suppose that P(A) = 0.25 and P(B) = 0.40 . If P(A|B)=0.20 , what is P(B|A) ?
Ket [755]

Answer:

  • 0.32

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>Use of formula:</u>

  • P(A and B) = P(A)*P(B|A) and
  • P(A and B) = P(B)*P(A|B)

<u>According to above and based on given:</u>

  • P(A)P(B|A) = P(B)P(A|B)
  • P(B|A) = P(A|B)*P(B)/P(A)
  • P(B|A) = 0.20*0.40/0.25 = 0.32
8 0
3 years ago
Please answer these questions
lianna [129]

Answer:

8.  -3, 16

9.  -3, 4.5

Step-by-step explanation:

See attached worksheet.

4 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
Fraction that is smaller than -2^1^3
lapo4ka [179]
Isn't it 1/8?
I hope this helped i think i just simplified xD

7 0
3 years ago
GUYS GIRLS NONBINARY PEEPS I NEED YOUR HELP I HAVE A TEST THAT IS DUE IN 4 HOURS IF YOU GUYS CAN ANSWER THIS QUESTION THANK YOU​
antoniya [11.8K]

Answer:

The answer is A

Step-by-step explanation:

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5 0
3 years ago
Suppose that 50% of all babies born in a particular hospital are boys. If 6 babies born in the hospital are randomly selected, w
WINSTONCH [101]

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.3438 = 34.38% probability that fewer than 3 of them are boys.

<h3>What is the binomial distribution formula?</h3>

The formula is:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

The parameters are:

  • x is the number of successes.
  • n is the number of trials.
  • p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

In this problem, the values of the parameters are given as follows:

n = 6, p = 0.5.

The probability that fewer than 3 of them are boys is given by:

P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

In which:

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{6,0}.(0.5)^{0}.(0.5)^{6} = 0.0156

P(X = 1) = C_{6,1}.(0.5)^{1}.(0.5)^{5} = 0.0938

P(X = 2) = C_{6,2}.(0.5)^{2}.(0.5)^{4} = 0.2344

Then:

P(X < 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.0156 + 0.0938 + 0.2344 = 0.3438

0.3438 = 34.38% probability that fewer than 3 of them are boys.

More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377

#SPJ1

7 0
2 years ago
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