Answer:
The answer is "The wage rate will fall and employment will be increased until the new wage rate is equal to MRP.
Explanation:
Firms always try to maximize their profit. Therefore when they hire labor, the increase in labor costs must be lower than the labor's increase to the firm's total revenue. And this forms the "Marginal Revenue Productivity" which is simply the theory that suggests "Wages are paid at a level that is equal to the value of the marginal product of labor". Supply of labor is a function that is inversely proportional with wage rate. So if the supply of labor increases, the correct answer is that "The wage rate will fall and firms will increase employment until MRP equals the new wage rate." Hope this was helpful.
Answer:
d. transaction loss; $3,695
Explanation:
Calculations:
Today ¥110.58 can be exchanged by $1
<h3>US firm to pay today = 100,000,000/110.58 = 904322.66</h3>
US firm had to pay $904322.66 today.
US firm chooses to pay three months after the transaction and do not uses any hedging technique.
Three months later on settlement date ¥110.13 can be exchanged by $1, so less ¥ can be exchanged now than three months ago ( ¥110.58). Now US firm would incur transaction loss. Translation loss/gain occurs when balance sheet of a firm is converted from one currency to another.
<h3>US firm to pay 3 months later = 100000000/110.13 = 908017.79</h3>
US firm to pay $904322.66 three months later
<h3>Transaction gain/loss = $904322.66 - $908017.79 = -$3695.13 </h3>
So US firm incurs loss of $3695.13, rounded off to $3695
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It is completely inappropriate to mention that debt investments not classified as trading or held-to-maturity securities are called available-for-sale securities. Therefore, the statement given above is false.
<h3>What is the significance of debt investments?</h3>
Investments in the loan instruments or similar classes are regarded as debt investments. These investments cannot be bought or sold or traded in the open market, as unlike equity investments, they are backed by a date of maturity.
Therefore, the statement given above regarding the significance of debt investments is false.
Learn more about debt investments here:
brainly.com/question/20358839
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Answer:
The subsidiary reports cost of goods sold at A. $660,000.
Explanation:
Cost of goods sold is the direct cost of producing or purchasing the goods sold by a business. The formula for cost of goods sold is as follows:
Cost of goods sold = Opening inventory + Purchases - Closing inventory
The subsidiary calculates its cost of goods sold as follows.
Opening inventory $120,000
Add: Purchases $720,000
Less: Closing inventory ($180,000)
Cost of goods sold $660,000
Therefore, the correct option is A. $660,000.
