Answer:
Vendor analysis
Explanation:
Organizational Buying Process
This is simply refered to as the decision making process where organizations state the need for purchased products and services and thereafter identify or evaluate to choose among them. There are 3 influences purchase type. They includes: structural and behavioral.
Vendor analysis in organizations buying influence is simply known as the behavioral needs of the buyer.
ethical conflicts may sometimes arise in buyer-supplier relationships. This can help the buying organization to manage spending
Vendor Analysis
This is simply refered to as a formal rating of suppliers on all important areas of performance.
The usual goal of a vendor analysis is to lower the total costs of a purchase.
The steps in Organizational buying process. They includes:
1. Recognize the product needed
2. Vendor analysis
3. Purchase decision
4. Post purchase evaluation.
Answer:
Explanation:
a) since MR=MC, then 15-2Q=3+Q. So, the monopolist produce Q=4
price P=15-Q=10-4=6
profit=6*3-TC=18-(3+4+0.5*4^2)=3
b)since the P=6=6, domestic production will stay the same. The domestic consumption will stay the same. For Wilknam, it will import soccer balls.
c)yes, it holds that Wiknam will be an importer. Because the price for domestic production is 6 which is same as the world price 6.
d)Since the price within country is the same with price out of country, and also, MC=3+Q=7>6, Wiknam will import soccer balls. The monopolist market will become a competitive market.Even though the price won't change,the product will be of high quality and so on. The market will become more equilibrium.
Prices communicate info and provide incentives to buyers and sellers. And sometimes there negotiating involved. High prices are signals to producers to produce more and buyers to buy less. Low prices are signals for producers to produce less and for buyers to buy more.
Where is the question? Thanks.
Answer:
<em>Value $ 256,250</em>
<em>rounding against nearest 1,000 dollar: 256,000</em>
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Explanation:
From the gross income we subtract the expenses and vanacy losses.
40,000 gross income - 3,500 vacancy - 16,000 operating expense
20,500 net
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Now, we solve for the present value of a perpetuity given the capitalziation rate of 8%
$ 20,500 / 0.08 = <em>$ 256,250</em>
