There are several information's of immense importance in the problem. Based on these information's the answer to the question can be easily reached. The only thing that has to be kept in mind is the calculation part, otherwise it is a simple problem.
Now it is given that:
A large chocolate shake takes 8/9 of a pint of milk.
Then
Amount of milk required to make medium shake = (8/9) * (1/7) of a pint
= 8/63 of a pint
Then it can be said that for making a medium chocolate shake , 8/63 of a pint of milk is required. This is the simplest form of the fraction and it cannot be expressed as a mixed number since the denominator is higher than the numerator.
Step-by-step explanation:
Let (2n +1) be the larger odd number by definition, where n can be any real integer. Then (2n - 1) is the smaller consecutive odd number.
The product of the 2 odd numbers is (2n + 1)(2n - 1) = 4n^2 - 1 = 2(2n^2) - 1. Since n^2 must be an integer, 2(2n^2) - 1 is odd. (Shown)
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
We would apply the formula for determining compound interest which is expressed as
A = P(1 + r/n)^nt
Where
A = total amount in the account at the end of t years
r represents the interest rate.
n represents the periodic interval at which it was compounded.
P represents the principal or initial amount deposited
From the information given,
P = £600
r = 3.2% = 3.2/100 = 0.32
n = 1 because it was compounded once in a year.
t = 6 years
Therefore,.
A = 600(1 + 0.032/1)^1 × 6
A = 600(1.032)^6
A = £724.82
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
the product of the two fractions are 3/32
first find common denominator then multiply then simplify
Answer:25
Step-by-step explanation:
Move the variable to one side by subtracting 0.45x from 0.65x and you get 0.20 the divide 5 by 0.20
