Answer:
-2
Step-by-step explanation:
its -2 because is a neg. number. the more the number is in neg. the lesser it is
idk tbh ajajaanananaa aja an aja a
SOLUTION
This is a binomial probability. For i, we will apply the Binomial probability formula
i. Exactly 2 are defective
Using the formula, we have

Note that I made the probability of being defective as the probability of success = p
and probability of none defective as probability of failure = q
Exactly 2 are defective becomes the binomial probability

Hence the answer is 0.1157
(ii) None is defective becomes

hence the answer is 0.4823
(iii) All are defective

(iv) At least one is defective
This is 1 - probability that none is defective

Hence the answer is 0.5177
Answer:
150 miles
Step-by-step explanation:
If 1/2 of an inch is 20 miles, we can assume that 1/4 of an inch is 10 miles, since half of 1/2 is 1/4 and 1/2 of 20 is 10.
Equipped with this information, we can divide 3 by 1/2 or multiply 3 by the reciprical, 2/1 to get how much we should multiply 20 by.
3*2=6
20*6=120
Then we can multiply 10 by 3 and add that on our answer, since there are still 3/4s left and 1/4=10 miles.
10*3=30
120+30=150
The actual distance is 150 miles.
Hope this helps!
The average rate of change is m=5.
Hope this helped.