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sergij07 [2.7K]
3 years ago
6

An increase in appraisal costs will probably lead to a decrease in internal failure costs and an increase in external failure co

sts.
True or False?
Business
1 answer:
ivanzaharov [21]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

False

Explanation:

An increase in appraisal costs will probably lead to a decrease in internal failure costs and an increase in external failure costs is a false statement as costs associated with measuring, evaluating or auditing products or services to assure great quality is the appraisal costs.

Internal Failure Costs: Costs emanating of products or services not corresponding to demands or consumer/user requirements. You would willingly have this outside of the failure costs

External Failure Costs: Costs occurring from products or services not adhering to demands or consumer/user requirements AFTER shipment or consignment of the goods.

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Summarize the main points of a wise investment strategy
mestny [16]

Answer:

Strategy 1: Value Investing.

Strategy 2: Growth Investing.

Strategy 3: Momentum Investing.

Strategy 4: Dollar-Cost Averaging.

4 0
3 years ago
You would like to purchase one Class A share of Berkshire Hathaway through your Scottrade brokerage account. Scottrade charges a
Bumek [7]

Answer:

The current​ bid/ask spread for Berkshire Hathaway Class A​ shares is $935

Explanation:

The computation of the current bid/ask price is shown below:

The Current bid/ask price = Ask price - Bid price

                                   = $263,810 - $262,875

                                   = $935

The commission amount should be ignored in the computation part. Hence, it will not be considered as it is not relevant.

5 0
3 years ago
Your boss leaves you a note, asking you to determine the present value of a $1,200,000 payment to be made in six years assuming
shtirl [24]

Answer:

so value of the mistake is $311685.71

Explanation:

given data

present value = $1,200,000

time = 6 year

discount rate = 18%

discount rate = 8%

to find out

What is the dollar value of the mistake

solution

we get here present value that is express as for both rate that is

present value = \frac{FV}{(1+r)^t}

put here value

present value =  \frac{1200000}{(1+0.18)^6}

present value 1 = $444517.85

and

present value =  \frac{1200000}{(1+0.08)^6}

present value 2 = $756203.55

so

difference is $756203.55 - $444517.85

difference is = $311685.71

so value of the mistake is $311685.71

7 0
3 years ago
Calistoga Produce estimates bad debt expense at 0.50% of credit sales. The company reported accounts receivable and allowance fo
AveGali [126]

Answer:

$1,345

Explanation:

Calculation to determine what Calistoga's final balance in its allowance for uncollectible accounts at December 31, 2021, is

First step is to calculate the Expense amount

Expense=Credit sales $315,000* .5%

Expense=$1,575

Second step is to calculate the Allowance

Allowance 12/31/2020 $1,650

Less Write-offs(1,880)

Allowance ($ 230)debit

Now let calculate the final balance in its allowance for uncollectible accounts

December 31, 2021 allowance for uncollectible accounts= ($230) + $1,575

December 31, 2021 allowance for uncollectible accounts=$1,345

Therefore Calistoga's final balance in its allowance for uncollectible accounts at December 31, 2021, is $1,345

7 0
3 years ago
If bonds are issued at a premium, the stated interest rate is a.higher than the market rate of interest b.too low to attract inv
worty [1.4K]

Answer:

a.higher than the market rate of interest

Explanation:

If bonds are issued at a premium, the stated interest rate is <u>higher than the market rate of interest.</u>

- If the company issues the binds at a premium, it means that the company is getting more money than the face value of the bond.

- This happens because the demand for the bind is high in the market.

- The demand is high because the company offers higher interest rate as compared to market interest rate.

- If the bonds are issued at a discount, then the stated interest rate is lower than the market interest rate.

5 0
3 years ago
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