Answer: $61,500
Explanation:
Jerry's adjusted basis in his partnership interest at the end of the year is determined by adding his cash contributions, long-term capital gain, and qualified dividends to the original tax basis.
There will also be deductions of the non-deductible expenses, ordinary loss and his share of the reduction in partnership debt.
Jerry's adjusted basis at the end of the year = ( 44,000 + 26,000 + 3,600 4,600) - ( 2,100 + 9,000 + 5,600)
= 78,200 - 16,700
= $61,500
I would guess C. expansion
Both B and D are both negative that describe economic declines and a trough is a turning point in a business cycle. So, by the process of elimination, I would choose C.
Answer:
7.74%
Explanation:
The yield to call would be the internal rate of return considering the cahsflow until the bodn is called. W can solve for that using excel IRR function;
We list the cashflow in order.
F0 -1180
F1 105
F2 105
F3 105
F4 105
F5 1205 (105 coupon payment plus 1100 principal)
We now write the function and get the YTC
=IRR(B1:B6) 7.7366%
Answer:
$24,000
Explanation:
Since in the question it is given that the 3% of credit sales is considered to be a bad debt expense
where,
Credit sales is $800,000
And, the estimated percentage is 3%
So by considering this above information, the amount debited to bad debt expense is
= $800,000 × 3%
= $24,000
All the other information i.e to be given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it
