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elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]
3 years ago
10

Was the lavish spending of the royal family a cause of the French Revolution?

History
1 answer:
jek_recluse [69]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Yes because they spent all of the money on parties, bread, and shopping while the citizens starved and were taxed every day

Explanation:

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3 years ago
To what extent did feudalism contribute to the french revolution
Leto [7]

I can't really answer your question (as I don't really know enough about 18th century France), but I just want to clear up an (understandable) misconception about Feudalism in your question.

The French revolution was adamant and explicit in its abolition of 'feudalism'. However, the 'feudalism' it was talking about had nothing at all to do with medieval 'feudalism' (which, of course, never existed). What the revolutionaries had in mind, in my own understanding of it, was the legally privileged position of the aristocracy/2nd estate. This type of 'feudalism' was a creation of early modern lawyers and, as a result, is better seen as a product of the early-modern monarchical nation-state, than as a precursor to it. It has nothing to do with the pre-nation-state medieval period, or with the Crusades.

Eighteenth-century buffs, feel free to chip in if I've misrepresented anything, as this is mostly coming from my readings about the historiographical development of feudalism, not any revolutionary France expertise, so I may well have misinterpreted things.

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3 years ago
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