Answer:1) c. 5,9,13,17,21
2) a. a1=8, an=an-1 -2
Step-by-step explanation: 1) an=4n+1
⇒ a1=4×1+1=5
a2=4×2+1=9
a3=4×3+1=13
a4=4×4+1=17
a5=4×5+1=21
2) clearly a1=8 and then the terms of series are decreasing by 2
so, an=an-1 -2
1 in 35 or <span>0.03 is the probability</span>
Complete question is;
Many states run lotteries to raise money. A website advertises that it knows "how to increase YOUR chances of Winning the Lottery." They offer several systems and criticize others as foolish. One system is called Lucky Numbers. People who play the Lucky Numbers system just pick a "lucky" number to play, but maybe some numbers are luckier than others. Let's use a simulation to see how well this system works. To make the situation manageable, simulate a simple lottery in which a single digit from 0 to 9 is selected as the winning number. Any value can be picked, but for this exercise, pick 1 as the lucky number. What proportion of the time do you win?
Answer:
10%
Step-by-step explanation:
We are told that To make the situation manageable, simulate a simple lottery in which a single digit from 0 to 9 is selected as the winning number.
This means the total number of single digits that could possibly be a winning one is 10.
Since we are told that only 1 can be picked, thus;
Probability of winning is; 1/10 = 0.1 or 10%
The first one is 24, and the second one is 12
the coefficient of x is 1
