Answer:
C) No Yes
Explanation:
When an income statement is prepared using absorption costing then, firstly revenue from sales is shown, then cost of goods sold will be shown, which includes direct fixed cost + Variable direct cost, that is cost related to production from this we get gross margin after that selling and administration expenses are deducted and we get operating profit, in income statement using absorption costing there is no, contribution margin, only gross margin and net operating income.
Sales
Less: Cost of goods sold
Gross Margin
Less: Administrative Cost
Net Operating Margin
Therefore Correct option is
C) No Yes
Answer:
At least the 110,000
The deficiency will be based on jurisdictions and the state at which the bankruptcy occur.
Explanation:
Baily will receive the 110,000 as the mortgage collateral was the real state. Once it was sold, Baley received the 110,000.
Sparkman offer is for unsecured claims, the mortage is secured, as the mortage is secured through mortgage origination.
Once Sparkman filed bankruptcy, the lender which is Bailey executed foreclosure to take ownership of the property and sell it to pay off the loan.
After foreclosure, Mailey has little to no resources for the remaining debt.
It will depend heavily on jurisdictions if Baily can force Sparkman to pay the 40,000 remaining.
Considering the available options, the statements that will likely lead to cost-push inflation include <u>"An increase in the price of oil has reduced supply of all goods and services that use oil as an input."</u>
The other options that will likely lead to cost-push inflation are "<u>Consumers become more comfortable with debt, increasing their spending as they take on more loans.</u><u>"</u>
<h3>What is Cost-Push inflation?</h3>
Cost-Push inflation is a type of inflation caused by the rise in the cost of wages and raw materials.
This implies that the rise in wages allows the consumers to spend more money on limited supply.
Also, when the rise in the cost of materials reduced the supply of all goods and services.
Hence, in this case, it is concluded that the correct answer is options A and E.
Learn more about Cost-Push inflation here: brainly.com/question/4540785
Answer:
Check the explanation
Explanation:
As per the beta distribution, the average revenue per year = (Pessimistic +4*Most Likely +Optimistic) / 6
Avg revenue per year = (460000 + 4*660000 + 840000) / 6 = 656666.67
MARR = 12%, life = 9 yrs
NPW = -4000000 + 656666.67 * (P/A,12%,9) + 40000 * (P/F,12%,9)
= -4000000 + 656666.67 * 5.32824 + 40000 * 0.36061
= 7498877.6+14424.4
= -433415.60
= -433000 (nearest 1000)