Answer:
Check the explanation
Step-by-step explanation:
let the money on bet is X.
probability of winning =18/38=9/19
probability of losing =(1-9/19)=10/19
expected outcome =
probability *return =(
Expected value of return after one bet is =(9/19*x)-(10/19*x)=-1x/19
it is negative which is obvious cause casinos are there to earn money.
a) Our best strategy in this case as probability of winning is near by 50 %, we should place a bet of 1 $ each,and when we lose one bet consecutively we should bet twice the amount..
Cause two consecutive losses on black has less probability.
c) In case we have to reach 30 $ we have to use the same strategy as above.
The given inequality is:

This inequality can be divided in two parts as:
a)

b)

Solving part a:

Solving part b:

Therefore, the solution to the given inequality is

and

. Combining both the ranges we get the solution:

.
In interval notation, this solution can be expressed as [1,5]
The number which appears most often in a set of numbers. Example: in {6, 3, 3, 6, 3, 5, 9, 3} the Mode<span> is 3 (it occurs most often). Does this help???</span>