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Evgesh-ka [11]
3 years ago
11

Use any method to multiply (3a + 2b – c)(a – b + 2c).

Mathematics
2 answers:
umka21 [38]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

A)

3a2 – 2b2 – 2c2 – ab + 5ac + 5bc

(3a + 2b - c)(a - b + 2c) \\  = (3 {a}^{2}  - 3ab + 6ac + 2ab - 2 {b}^{2}  + 6bc - ac + bc - 2 {c}^{2} ) \\  = 3 {a}^{2}  - ab + 5ac - 2 {b}^{2}  + 5bc -  {2c}^{2}  \\  = 3 {a}^{2}  - 2 {b}^{2}  -  {2c}^{2}  - ab + 5ac + 5bc

guajiro [1.7K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

option a is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

(3a + 2b - c)(a - b + 2c)

3a(a- b + 2c) +2b(a - b + 2c) - c(a - b + 2c)

multiply the brackets

3a^2 - 3ab + 6ac + 2ab - 2b^2 + 4bc - ac + bc - 2c^2

combine like terms

3a^2 - ab + 5ac - 2b^2 + 5bc - 2c^2

3a^2 - 2b^2 - 2c^2 - ab + 5ac + 5bc

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Thank you!!! 20 points
GREYUIT [131]

Answer:

Assuming that the figure is a rectangle:

x=12

angle GJH=22 degrees

Step-by-step explanation:

angle GHJ=angle IJH

5x+8=7x-16

simplify

2x=24

x=12

angle IJH=7x-16

substituting for x

IJH=7(12)-16=84-16=68 degrees

angle GJH=90-IJH

angle GJH=22 degrees

5 0
3 years ago
Whst is 15 divided by 6 2/3 equals
PolarNik [594]
First you make 15 a fraction by putting it over 1.
Then you make 6 2/3 a mixed fraction.
To do this, you multiply 6 with 3 and add 2 to it. Then you put the number over 3.
We get
6 X 3 = 18
18 +2 = 20
20/3

Now, we divide 15/1 with 20/3.
When we divide it, we actually cross multiply it. Basically, we flip the fraction and multiply it.

So we get 15/1 X 3/20 = \frac{15 X 3}{1 X 20}.

We get 45/20 which can be simplified to 9/5 which can be simplified to 2  1/4.

So the answer is 9/4 or 2  1/4.
5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Steve ordered plastic cases for storing his basketball cards each case has a length of 12 CM and a width of 6.5 cm , and height
AlladinOne [14]
Volume of a rectangular prism(the baseball card case) can be defined as follows:  V = lwh

V = lwh
V = 12(6.5)(1.25)
V = 97.5 cm³
6 0
3 years ago
33% X$90 rounded up to thr next highest dollar minus one cent
ivann1987 [24]
33% times 90 would be $29.7
6 0
3 years ago
Eights rooks are placed randomly on a chess board. What is the probability that none of the rooks can capture any of the other r
erastova [34]

Answer:

The probability is \frac{56!}{64!}

Step-by-step explanation:

We can divide the amount of favourable cases by the total amount of cases.

The total amount of cases is the total amount of ways to put 8 rooks on a chessboard. Since a chessboard has 64 squares, this number is the combinatorial number of 64 with 8, 64 \choose 8 .

For a favourable case, you need one rook on each column, and for each column the correspondent rook should be in a diferent row than the rest of the rooks. A favourable case can be represented by a bijective function  f : A \rightarrow A , with A = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8}. f(i) = j represents that the rook located in the column i is located in the row j.

Thus, the total of favourable cases is equal to the total amount of bijective functions between a set of 8 elements. This amount is 8!, because we have 8 possibilities for the first column, 7 for the second one, 6 on the third one, and so on.

We can conclude that the probability for 8 rooks not being able to capture themselves is

\frac{8!}{64 \choose 8} = \frac{8!}{\frac{64!}{8!56!}} = \frac{56!}{64!}

7 0
2 years ago
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