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baherus [9]
3 years ago
13

Write the fraction 36/40 in simplest form.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Vlad1618 [11]3 years ago
6 0
36/40 is the same as 9/10.  
36 goes into four, nine times. 36 / 4 = 9.
40 goes in four, ten times. 40 / 4 = 10.
If you are dividing a number by a fraction, lets say the numerator, then the same number you divided has to be divided by the denominator.
For example:
5/30
The numerator 5 goes into five, one time, because 5 / 5 = 1
You divide the same number 5, for the denominator also. 
30 goes into five, six times, because 30 / 5 = 6
The simplest form of 5/30 is 1/6.
Hope this helps!
-AphmauSenpai-
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Somebody please help. And be fr cause I’ll give that brainilest or whatever it’s called but please be the right answer.
bearhunter [10]
130 you multiply the left side by 13 to get the right side.
8 0
2 years ago
Can you help put them from greatest to least
Dafna1 [17]

Answer:

9 3/4 > 9.5 > 9 3/8 > 9.125

Step-by-step explanation:

convert the fractions to decimals and put it that way

3 0
3 years ago
Which term of the arthemetic sequence (1, 3, 5, 7) is equal to 141
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

Answer:

71th term is 141

Step-by-step explanation:

a_{1}=1\\\\common \ difference = d = second \ term - first \ term\\\\ = 3 - 1 = 2\\\\a_{n} = 141\\\\a + (n -1)*d = a_{n}

1 + (n - 1)*2 = 141         {Use distributive property}

1 + 2n - 2 = 141    

2n - 1 = 141

2n = 141 + 1

2n = 142

n = 142/2

n = 71

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An optical inspection system is used to distinguish among different part types. The probability of a correct classification of a
dsp73

Answer:

P(X=0)=0.000008

P(X=1)=0.00176

P(X=2)=0.057624

P(X=3)=0.941192

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability of correct classification = p = 0.98

Probability of incorrect classification = q = 1 - p = 0.02

The probability of success and failure is the same for all the trials. The trials are independent of each other and the number of trials is fixed i.e. n = 3.

This satisfies all the conditions of a Binomial Experiment. So we can use Binomial experiment to model the probability mass function.

The general formula of a binomial probability is:

P(X=x)=^{n}C_{x}(p)^{x}q^{n-x}

Here x denote the number of successes, which can be {0, 1, 2, 3}. So we need to evaluate the above equation for each value of x to determine the probability Mass function of X, as shown below:

P(X=0)=^{3}C_{0}(0.98)^{0}(0.02)^{3-0}=0.000008\\\\ P(X=1)=^{3}C_{1}(0.98)^{1}(0.02)^{3-1}=0.001176\\\\ P(X=2)=^{3}C_{2}(0.98)^{2}(0.02)^{3-2}=0.057624\\\\ P(X=3)=^{3}C_{3}(0.98)^{3}(0.02)^{3-3}=0.941192

7 0
2 years ago
The product of two consecutive even integers is 360. find the integers.
kaheart [24]
Let the integers be x and x + 2, provided x is even.

x(x + 2) = 360
x² + 2x = 360
x² + 2x - 360 = 0
(x - 18)(x + 20) = 0

x = 18, or x = -20
Thus, the integers are: 18 and 20, or -20 and -18

7 0
3 years ago
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