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Norma-Jean [14]
3 years ago
9

Are the two statements equivalent the ratio of orange. to blue is 3 to 4 please help

Mathematics
1 answer:
Anestetic [448]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Although I'm not entirely sure of the question (sorry lol), any ratio that is 1.5:2 , 6:8 , 9:12 , 12:18 etc would be equivalent to 3 to 4.

Step-by-step explanation:

If you divide both 3 and 4 by 2 you'd wind up with 1.5 ( 3 ) and 2 ( 4 ). When multiplying, you'd get 3x2 = 6 and 4x2=8, 3x3 = 9 and 4x3 = 12 and so on.

You might be interested in
Let AA and BB be events such that P(A∩B)=1/73P(A∩B)=1/73, P(A~)=68/73P(A~)=68/73, P(B)=21/73P(B)=21/73. What is the probability
krok68 [10]

Answer:

P(A \cup B) = \frac{5}{73} +\frac{21}{73} -\frac{1}{73}=\frac{25}{73}

Step-by-step explanation:

Let A and B events. We have defined the probabilities for some events:

P(A') =\frac{68}{73} , P(B) =\frac{21}{73} , P(A \cap B) =\frac{1}{73}

Where A' represent the complement for the event A

The complement rule is a theorem that provides a connection between the probability of an event and the probability of the complement of the event. Lat A the event of interest and A' the complement. The rule is defined by: P(A)+P(A') =1

So for this case we can solve for P(A) like this:

P(A) = 1-P(A') = 1-\frac{68}{73}=\frac{5}{73}

And now we can find P(A \cup B) using the total probability rul given by:

P(A \cup B) = P(A)+P(B) -P(A \cap B)

And if we replace the values given we got:

P(A \cup B) = \frac{5}{73} +\frac{21}{73} -\frac{1}{73}=\frac{25}{73}

And that would be the final answer.

5 0
3 years ago
F(x) = x2 + 1<br> What is f(f(x))?<br> O A+ 2x2+1<br> A+ 2x2+2<br> O A +2<br> O A+1
Gennadij [26K]

Answer:

Your answer is x^4 + 2 x^2 +2

Hope that this is helpful. Vote and like it

6 0
3 years ago
What is continuous​ compounding? how does the apy for continuous compounding compare to the apy​ for, say, daily​ compounding? e
aliya0001 [1]
Continuous compounding is the mathematical limit that compound interest can reach.

It is the limit of the function A(1 + 1/n) ^ n as n approaches infinity. IN theory interest is added to the initial amount A  every infinitesimally small  instant.
The limit  of (1 + 1/n)^n is the number e ( = 2.718281828 to 9 dec places).

Say we invest  $1000  at daily compounding at yearly interest of 2 %. After 1 year the $1000 will increase to:-

1000 ( 1 + 0.02/365)^365 = $1020.20

with continuous compounding this will be 

1000 * e^1  =  $2718.28  
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Need help ASAP! What is this
ikadub [295]

180 - 64= 116

116 divided by 4 = 29

x=29

Have a good day:>

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Help look at screenshot
ipn [44]
1/3 is the correct answer simplified
4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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