Answer:
100r^4 + 400r^3 + 600r^2 + 400r + 100
Step-by-step explanation:
Expanding ( r + 1 )^4 gives :-
r^4 + 4r^3 + 6r^2 + 4r + 1
So multiplying 100 with r^4 + 4r^3 + 6r^2 + 4r + 1 gives :-
100r^4 + 400r^3 + 600r^2 + 400r + 100
<h3>Answer:
10000 in base 5</h3>
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Explanation:
4+1 = 5 in base 10
But in base 5, the digit "5" does not exist.
The only digits in base five are: 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
This is similar to how in base ten, the digits span from 0 to 9 with the digit "10" not being a thing (rather it's the combination of the digits "1" and "0" put together).
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Anyways let's go back to base 5.
Instead of writing 4+1 = 5, we'd write 4+1 = 10 in base 5. The first digit rolls back to a 0 and we involve a second digit of 1.
Think how 9+1 = 10 in base 10.
Similarly,
44+1 = 100 in base 5
444+1 = 1000 in base 5
4444+1 = 10000 in base 5
and so on.
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Here are the first few numbers in base 5, when counting up by 1 each time.
0, 1, 2, 3, 4,
10, 11, 12, 13, 14,
20, 21, 22, 23, 24,
30, 31, 32, 33, 34,
40, 41, 42, 43, 44,
100, 101, 102, 103, ...
Notice each new row is when the pattern changes from what someone would expect in base 10. This is solely because the digit "5" isn't available in base 5.
The best firm for the Appliance manufacturer for the repair work is Firm 2 .
In the question ,
it is given that ,
An appliance manufacturer wants to contract with a repair shop to handle authorized repairs in Indianapolis .
The acceptable range of the repair time is 50 minutes to 90 minutes.
the mean repair time for firm 1 = 74 minutes and standard deviation of 4 minutes .
the mean repair time for firm 2 = 72 minutes and standard deviation of 5.1 minutes .
the range is calculated using the formula
Range = Mean ± Standard Deviation
So , for firm 1 ,
the Range = 74 ± 4
= 74 
4 and 74 - 4
= 78 and 70
the range for firm 2 is
= 72 ± 5.1
= 72 5.1 and 72 - 5.1
= 7.1 and 66.9
The second company has a lower range and it should be preferred .
Therefore , The best firm for the Appliance manufacturer for the repair work is Firm 2 .
Learn more about Standard Deviation here
brainly.com/question/23611887
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3 pints
There are 8 pints of milk in 1 gallon. There is also 4 quarts in 1 gallon. So each quart is 2 pints.
After breakfast they had 3 quarts of the original gallon left since 4 - 1 = 3.
3 quarts is the same as 6 pints. They drank 3 pints at lunch. This means 6 - 3 = 3. After lunch, there were 3 pints left.
