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mojhsa [17]
3 years ago
6

Pacifica Industrial Products Corporation makes two products, Product H and Product L. Product H is expected to sell 39,000 units

next year and Product L is expected to sell 8,000 units. A unit of either product requires 0.81 direct labor-hours.
The company's total manufacturing overhead for the year is expected to be $1,800,000
Required:
1-a.
The company currently applies manufacturing overhead to products using direct labor-hours as the allocation base. If this method is followed, how much overhead cost per unit would be applied to each product? (Do not round intermediate calculations.Round your answers to 2 decimal places.)
Business
1 answer:
Gemiola [76]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Each product will be allocated with 38.30 dollars of manufacturing overhead as both takes 0.81 DLH

Explanation:

\frac{Cost\: Of \:Manufacturing \:Overhead}{Cost \:Driver}= Overhead \:Rate

To calcualte the overhead rate we need to distribute the expected cost over the expected cost driver, in this case, labor hours:

(39,000 + 8,000) x 0.81 DLH = 38,070 labor hous

$1,800,000 overhead / 38,070 DLH =  47,281323877

the overhead per hour is $47.28

overhead per product:

47,281323877 x 0.81 = 38,29787234 = <u><em>38.30</em></u>

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kiruha [24]

Answer: (E) Pull strategy

Explanation:

The pull strategy is one of the type of the marketing technique or the strategy in which the customers are pulled towards the product by using this strategy.

We use various types of mass media and the advertising for promoting the products and the services. It is also known as one of the type of channel strategy.

The main goal of the pull strategy is that by using various promotional tool we attract the consumers or user to the product and the services which is provided by an organization.

Therefore, Option (E) is correct.  

3 0
3 years ago
Moody Farms just paid a dividend of $3.95 on its stock. The growth rate in dividends is expected to be a constant 5 percent per
Amiraneli [1.4K]

Answer:

$81.52

Explanation:

The current share price is the present value of future dividends as well as the present value of the terminal value of dividends beyond year 6 as shown thus:

Current dividend=$3.95

Year 1 dividend=$3.95*(1+5%)=$4.15

Year 2 dividend=$4.15*(1+5%)=$4.36

Year 3 dividend=$4.36*(1+5%)=$4.58

The required rate of return(discount rate) for the dividends in the FIRST 3 years above is 14%

Year 4 dividend=$4.58*(1+5%)=$4.81

Year 5 dividend=$4.81*(1+5%)=$5.05

Year 6 dividend=$5.05*(1+5%)=$5.30

The required rate of return(discount rate) for the dividends in the NEXT 3 years above is 12%

Terminal value of dividend=Year 6 dividend*(1+growth rate)/(rate of return-growth rate)

growth rate=5%

rate of return=10%(rate of return thereafter)

terminal value=$5.30*(1+5%)/(10%-5%)

terminal value=$111.30

current share price=$4.15/(1+14%)+$4.36/(1+14%)^2+$4.58/(1+14%)^3+$4.81/(1+12%)^4+$5.05/(1+12%)^5+$5.30/(1+12%)^6+$111.30/(1+10%)^6

current share price=$81.52

5 0
3 years ago
Net Income of $10,000,000 Increase in Accounts Payable of $800,000 Increase in Accounts Receivable of $600,000 Depreciation of $
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Answer:

Cash flow generated from operating activities <em>12,010,000</em>

Explanation:

10,000.000

+1,600,000

Adjusted Net Income 11,600,000

↑AR -600,000

↓Inventory 100,000

↑AP   800,000

Change in working capial 300,000

Other adjustment 110,000

Cash flow generated from operating activities 12,010,000

4 0
3 years ago
Select all that apply Which of the statements below summarize why a seller would give a sales allowance? (Check all that apply.)
Varvara68 [4.7K]

Answer:

I. In order to entice a customer to keep damaged or defective merchandise, the seller is willing to decrease the selling price.

II. The seller wants to avoid future lost sales.

III. The seller wants to keep a customer happy.

IV. Sold merchandise was defective or unacceptable.

Explanation:

Sales allowance can be defined as a reduction in the price of goods that a seller gives to a customer due to quality issues, incorrect pricing, shipping, etc.

The statements which best summarize why a seller would give a sales allowance are;

I. In order to entice a customer to keep damaged or defective merchandise, the seller is willing to decrease the selling price.

II. The seller wants to avoid future lost sales.

III. The seller wants to keep a customer happy.

IV. Sold merchandise was defective or unacceptable.

5 0
3 years ago
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Answer: V=7.43m/s

d =2.82m

Explanation:

a) For the first part, the initial velocity immediately after ejection, by using momentum conservation

before ejection, the momentum of the squid/water system is zero

there are no external forces acting on the system at the moment of ejection, so we can find the speed of the squid by noting

momentum before ejection = momentum after ejection

0 = M1U + M2V

0=-0.26 kg x 20 m/s + 0.7kg x V

where the speed of the water is taken as the negative sign, and V is the speed of the squid right after ejection, solving for V we get

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B. we use the equation vf^²=v0^²+2ad

where vf=final velocity = 0 since velocity is zero at motion's apex

v0=initial velocity = 7.43m/s

a = acceleration = -9.8m/s/s

d=height (to be found)

Therefore,

0=7.43^²+2(-9.8)d

Mathematically, it becomes

d=7.43^²/2(9.8)= 2.82m

d = 2.82m

4 0
3 years ago
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