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Verdich [7]
3 years ago
14

In 2019, Wildhorse Company had a break-even point of $244,000 based on a selling price of $5 per unit and fixed costs of $97,600

. In 2020, the selling price and the variable costs per unit did not change, but the break-even point increased to $442,000.
Compute the variable costs per unit and the contribution margin ratio for 2019. (Round Variable cost per unit to 2 decimal places, e.g. 2.25 and Contribution margin ratio to 0 decimal places, e.g. 20.)
Business
1 answer:
Luden [163]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

unitary variable cost= $3

contribution margin ratio= 0.4

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

break-even point= $244,000

the selling price= $5 per unit

Fixed costs of $97,600.

First, we need to calculate the contribution margin ratio, we will use the following formula:

Break-even point (dollars)= fixed costs/ contribution margin ratio

244,000= 97,600/contribution margin ratio

contribution margin ratio= 97,600/244,000

contribution margin ratio= 0.4

Now, we can calculate the unitary variable cost:

contribution margin ratio= (selling price - unitary variable cost)/seling price

0.4= (5 - unitary variable cost)/5

2= 5 -unitary variable cost

unitary variable cost= 3

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Frederick Group uses ABC to account for its chrome wheel manufacturing process. Company managers have identified four manufactur
adoni [48]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

<u>First, we need to calculate the activities allocation rate:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Material handeling= 8,700/2,900= $3 per part

Machine setup= 4,650/15= $310 per setup

Insertion of parts= 49,300/2,900= $17 per part

Finishing= 75,600/1,800= $42 per direct labor hour

<u>Now, we can allocate overhead to Job 420:</u>

<u />

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Material handeling= 3*150= $450

Machine setup= 310*4= $1,240

Insertion of parts= 17*150= $2,550

Finishing= 42*120= $5,040

Total allocated costs= $9,280

<u>Finally, allocated costs to Job 510:</u>

Material handeling= 3*500= $1,500

Machine setup= 310*5= $1,550

Insertion of parts= 17*500= $8,500

Finishing= 42*320= $13,440

Total allocated costs= $24,990

6 0
3 years ago
A company has $80,000 in outstanding accounts receivable and it uses the allowance method to account for uncollectible accounts.
Galina-37 [17]

Answer:

  • Dr Bad Debt expense 6,000
  • Cr Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account 6,000

Explanation:

The total estimated bad debts are $4,800 (= $80,000 x 6%). So the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account ending balance should be $4,800. Since this account is a contra asset account, the ending balance should be $4,800 credited.

But currently the account has a $1,200 debit balance (it's like -$1,200), so the adjustment record must be = $4,800 + $1,200 = $6,000

That way the ending balance = $6,000 - $1,200 = $4,800

The journal entries should be:

  • Dr Bad Debt expense 6,000
  • Cr Allowance for Doubtful Accounts account 6,000

3 0
3 years ago
The __________ is a listing of all the balance sheet and income-related accounts
fenix001 [56]
<span>Answer : Chart of accounts Explanation: A chart of accounts (COA) is a created list of the accounts used by an organization to define each class of items for which money or the equivalent is spent or received. It is used to organize the finances of the entity and to segregate expenditures, revenue, assets and liabilities in order to give interested parties a better understanding of the financial health of the entity.</span>
8 0
3 years ago
As part of his 401(k) retirement plan at work, Ken Lowery invests 6.0 percent of his salary each month in the Capital Investment
Gnesinka [82]

Answer:

The amount of the fee is $1689.60

Explanation:

The computation of the amount of the fee is shown below:

= Dollar value × fund charges a 12b-1 fee

= $211,200 × 0.8%

= $211,200 × 0.008

= $1689.60

Since the question has asked the fee amount so we consider the fee charges percentage, not the capital investment Lifecycle fund. Thus, we ignore the Capital Investments Lifecycle Fund as it is not relevant.

Hence, the amount of the fee is $1689.60

8 0
3 years ago
state four measures that may be taken by the government to control inflationstate formations that taken by the government to con
Margarita [4]

Answer:

see below

Explanation:

The government takes contractionary measures to check against rising inflation. Contractionary policies reduce liquidity in the market, thereby reducing the rate of money circulation.

<u> Four measures that may control inflation include</u>

1<u>. Increasing interest rates</u>: An increase in interest rates increases the cost of borrowing money. When the cost of money becomes expensive, firms and households reduce the borrowing rate, reducing the money supply rate. In turn, the inflation rate declines.

2. <u>Increasing reserve requirement:</u> Reserve is the proposition of customer discounts that commercial banks are expected to maintain at their custody at all times. Increasing the reserve requirement means banks will reduce lending, thereby reducing the money supply in the economy.

3. <u>The open market sells</u>: The government makes available many treasury bills and bonds for purchase in the market. It offers attractive rates that encourage banks and other institutions to buy them. Buying the treasury bills means banks will use a substantial percentage of customer deposits on treasury bills other than lending to customers. Open market sales mop up excess liquidity in the markets, reducing the rate of cash circulation.

4. <u>Reduction of government spending:</u> Government spending is a fiscal policy tool. The government is a big spender in an economy. If the level of spending is decreased, the money supply in the economy is reduced.

5 0
3 years ago
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